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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
An assessment of a new listing by a salesperson, Kenji, reveals a complex tenancy situation. The property includes a main dwelling and a self-contained basement unit, which is occupied by a tenant on a periodic tenancy. Through his due diligence, Kenji discovers the basement conversion was completed without the necessary building consent and consequently lacks a Code Compliance Certificate, rendering it an unlawful residential premises under the Residential Tenancies Act 1986. The vendor, Mrs. Devi, is aware of this but wants to sell the property with the tenant remaining in the unit. Considering Kenji’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and its Code of Conduct, what is the most critical and immediate action he must take in this situation?
Correct
Let \(U\) represent the state of the premises being an unlawful residential premises. Let \(C\) represent the absence of required council consent and/or a Code Compliance Certificate for residential use. Let \(R\) represent the premises being rented for residential purposes. The determination of the premises’ status is: \( (C \land R) \rightarrow U \). Since both conditions are met, \(U\) is true. Let \(D\) represent the salesperson’s duty of disclosure. Let \(M\) represent a fact that is material to a purchaser’s decision. Let \(K\) represent a known defect. Rule 10.7 of the Code of Conduct states that a known defect must be disclosed. The unlawful status \(U\) is a known defect \(K\). Rule 6.4 of the Code of Conduct prevents withholding information. The status \(U\) and its associated financial risks are material facts \(M\). The salesperson’s primary obligation is derived from these rules: \( (U \land (K \lor M)) \rightarrow D \). Since \(U\) is true and it constitutes both a known defect and a material fact, the duty of disclosure \(D\) is mandatory and primary. The situation described involves what is known as “unlawful residential premises” under the Residential Tenancies Act 1986. This occurs when a property is rented for habitation but does not have the legal consents from the relevant local authority to be used as a residence. This can include converted garages, basements, or commercial spaces that lack a Code Compliance Certificate for residential use. The legal implications are severe for a landlord. Under the Act, a tenant residing in such premises can apply to the Tenancy Tribunal for a rent repayment order. The Tribunal has the power to order the landlord to repay all rent ever paid by the tenant for the entire duration of the tenancy. This creates a substantial financial liability that transfers to any new owner who purchases the property with the tenant in situ. For a real estate salesperson, knowledge of such a situation triggers fundamental duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. Specifically, the unlawful status of the premises is a significant latent defect and a material fact. Rule 10.7 requires licensees to disclose known defects to a customer, and Rule 6.4 obligates them not to mislead a customer or withhold information that should, by law or fairness, be provided. Therefore, the salesperson’s paramount professional and legal obligation is to inform all potential purchasers of the defect and the associated risks.
Incorrect
Let \(U\) represent the state of the premises being an unlawful residential premises. Let \(C\) represent the absence of required council consent and/or a Code Compliance Certificate for residential use. Let \(R\) represent the premises being rented for residential purposes. The determination of the premises’ status is: \( (C \land R) \rightarrow U \). Since both conditions are met, \(U\) is true. Let \(D\) represent the salesperson’s duty of disclosure. Let \(M\) represent a fact that is material to a purchaser’s decision. Let \(K\) represent a known defect. Rule 10.7 of the Code of Conduct states that a known defect must be disclosed. The unlawful status \(U\) is a known defect \(K\). Rule 6.4 of the Code of Conduct prevents withholding information. The status \(U\) and its associated financial risks are material facts \(M\). The salesperson’s primary obligation is derived from these rules: \( (U \land (K \lor M)) \rightarrow D \). Since \(U\) is true and it constitutes both a known defect and a material fact, the duty of disclosure \(D\) is mandatory and primary. The situation described involves what is known as “unlawful residential premises” under the Residential Tenancies Act 1986. This occurs when a property is rented for habitation but does not have the legal consents from the relevant local authority to be used as a residence. This can include converted garages, basements, or commercial spaces that lack a Code Compliance Certificate for residential use. The legal implications are severe for a landlord. Under the Act, a tenant residing in such premises can apply to the Tenancy Tribunal for a rent repayment order. The Tribunal has the power to order the landlord to repay all rent ever paid by the tenant for the entire duration of the tenancy. This creates a substantial financial liability that transfers to any new owner who purchases the property with the tenant in situ. For a real estate salesperson, knowledge of such a situation triggers fundamental duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. Specifically, the unlawful status of the premises is a significant latent defect and a material fact. Rule 10.7 requires licensees to disclose known defects to a customer, and Rule 6.4 obligates them not to mislead a customer or withhold information that should, by law or fairness, be provided. Therefore, the salesperson’s paramount professional and legal obligation is to inform all potential purchasers of the defect and the associated risks.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A property manager, Kenji, is tasked with selecting a tenant for a three-bedroom house in a popular school zone. He receives two applications that are both strong contenders. The first is from a family with three school-aged children; the father is a doctor, the mother is a lawyer, and they have impeccable references and financial records. The second application is from a group of four mature, post-graduate university students who have provided written guarantees from their parents, all of whom are high-income professionals. The students also have excellent references from previous landlords. Kenji recommends the family to the landlord, noting in his file, “While both applicants are financially sound, the family household is inherently more stable and a better long-term fit for a neighbourhood property than a transient student group.” Considering Kenji’s professional obligations, which of the following statements most accurately evaluates his reasoning?
Correct
The assessment of a prospective tenant must be conducted in strict compliance with the Human Rights Act 1993 and the Privacy Act 2020. The Human Rights Act prohibits discrimination on thirteen grounds, including family status, which encompasses having children or being a sole parent. While a property manager has a duty to the landlord to find a suitable tenant who can reliably pay rent and care for the property, the selection criteria must not be unlawfully discriminatory, either directly or indirectly. In this scenario, the property manager’s decision-making process is flawed. While assessing financial capability is a legitimate part of tenant screening, the reasoning used creates a potential case for indirect discrimination based on family status. The solo mother’s application is demonstrably strong, featuring excellent references, a perfect rental history, and a legally binding guarantee from a financially sound third party. The guarantor effectively mitigates the perceived risk of a single, variable income. By favouring the dual-income couple based on a preference for a particular household income structure over an equally viable, guaranteed income structure, the manager is effectively penalising the applicant for being a single-income household, a situation closely linked to her family status as a solo mother. The correct approach is to evaluate each applicant’s ability to meet the tenancy obligations based on the totality of the information provided. A robust application with a guarantor should be considered on its merits and not be dismissed based on a preference for a different family or financial structure, as this can lead to a breach of the Human Rights Act 1993.
Incorrect
The assessment of a prospective tenant must be conducted in strict compliance with the Human Rights Act 1993 and the Privacy Act 2020. The Human Rights Act prohibits discrimination on thirteen grounds, including family status, which encompasses having children or being a sole parent. While a property manager has a duty to the landlord to find a suitable tenant who can reliably pay rent and care for the property, the selection criteria must not be unlawfully discriminatory, either directly or indirectly. In this scenario, the property manager’s decision-making process is flawed. While assessing financial capability is a legitimate part of tenant screening, the reasoning used creates a potential case for indirect discrimination based on family status. The solo mother’s application is demonstrably strong, featuring excellent references, a perfect rental history, and a legally binding guarantee from a financially sound third party. The guarantor effectively mitigates the perceived risk of a single, variable income. By favouring the dual-income couple based on a preference for a particular household income structure over an equally viable, guaranteed income structure, the manager is effectively penalising the applicant for being a single-income household, a situation closely linked to her family status as a solo mother. The correct approach is to evaluate each applicant’s ability to meet the tenancy obligations based on the totality of the information provided. A robust application with a guarantor should be considered on its merits and not be dismissed based on a preference for a different family or financial structure, as this can lead to a breach of the Human Rights Act 1993.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
An assessment of a unique property is required for a potential sale. The property is a historic, decommissioned lighthouse on a coastal headland, which a national preservation trust is seeking to acquire from a government entity. The lighthouse has significant heritage protections, has never produced an income, and there are no recorded sales of similar properties anywhere in New Zealand. Given these specific circumstances, which valuation approach provides the most logical and defensible foundation for a market appraisal?
Correct
The logical deduction process for determining the most appropriate valuation method is as follows. First, the nature of the property is identified as unique, special-purpose (a decommissioned lighthouse), and non-income-generating. Second, the suitability of the three main valuation approaches is evaluated. The Sales Comparison Approach is immediately problematic due to the extreme rarity of lighthouse sales, making it impossible to find relevant and recent comparable data to form a reliable opinion of value. Third, the Income Capitalization Approach is deemed inapplicable because the property has no history of generating income and its intended future use by a preservation trust is also non-commercial. Creating a hypothetical income stream would be purely speculative and not grounded in market reality. Finally, the Cost Approach is identified as the most viable method. This approach establishes value by estimating the current cost to construct a replacement structure, subtracting any depreciation due to physical deterioration, functional obsolescence, or external factors, and then adding the market value of the land as if it were vacant. For unique properties like this, where market and income data are absent, the cost approach provides the only logical and defensible basis for valuation. In real estate valuation, selecting the appropriate methodology is crucial for providing a credible and defensible market appraisal. The three primary methods are the sales comparison approach, the income capitalization approach, and the cost approach. The sales comparison approach is most effective for residential properties or common types of commercial buildings where ample data on recent sales of similar properties exists. The income capitalization approach is used for investment properties, such as office buildings, retail centres, or apartment blocks, where value is directly related to the income they generate. The cost approach is most reliable for new construction or for special-purpose properties for which the other two methods are not applicable. These can include properties like schools, churches, government buildings, or, as in this scenario, a historic lighthouse. The principle is that a prudent buyer would not pay more for a property than the cost to acquire a similar site and construct a building of equivalent utility, a concept known as the principle of substitution. Therefore, for a unique, non-income-producing asset with no comparable sales, its value is best represented by the value of its components: the land and the depreciated cost of its improvements.
Incorrect
The logical deduction process for determining the most appropriate valuation method is as follows. First, the nature of the property is identified as unique, special-purpose (a decommissioned lighthouse), and non-income-generating. Second, the suitability of the three main valuation approaches is evaluated. The Sales Comparison Approach is immediately problematic due to the extreme rarity of lighthouse sales, making it impossible to find relevant and recent comparable data to form a reliable opinion of value. Third, the Income Capitalization Approach is deemed inapplicable because the property has no history of generating income and its intended future use by a preservation trust is also non-commercial. Creating a hypothetical income stream would be purely speculative and not grounded in market reality. Finally, the Cost Approach is identified as the most viable method. This approach establishes value by estimating the current cost to construct a replacement structure, subtracting any depreciation due to physical deterioration, functional obsolescence, or external factors, and then adding the market value of the land as if it were vacant. For unique properties like this, where market and income data are absent, the cost approach provides the only logical and defensible basis for valuation. In real estate valuation, selecting the appropriate methodology is crucial for providing a credible and defensible market appraisal. The three primary methods are the sales comparison approach, the income capitalization approach, and the cost approach. The sales comparison approach is most effective for residential properties or common types of commercial buildings where ample data on recent sales of similar properties exists. The income capitalization approach is used for investment properties, such as office buildings, retail centres, or apartment blocks, where value is directly related to the income they generate. The cost approach is most reliable for new construction or for special-purpose properties for which the other two methods are not applicable. These can include properties like schools, churches, government buildings, or, as in this scenario, a historic lighthouse. The principle is that a prudent buyer would not pay more for a property than the cost to acquire a similar site and construct a building of equivalent utility, a concept known as the principle of substitution. Therefore, for a unique, non-income-producing asset with no comparable sales, its value is best represented by the value of its components: the land and the depreciated cost of its improvements.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider a scenario where Anaru, a licensed salesperson, is managing a premium rental property on behalf of his client, Mrs. Gable. During a discussion about potential tenants, Mrs. Gable states, “I’ve had issues with noise and property damage in the past. Please ensure you do not consider any applications from families with young children under the age of five.” From a legal and professional conduct standpoint, what is Anaru’s most appropriate and required course of action?
Correct
The core legal and ethical issue in this scenario is unlawful discrimination under the New Zealand Human Rights Act 1993. Section 21 of this Act lists the prohibited grounds of discrimination, which include family status. Family status is defined as having responsibility for the part-time or full-time care of children or other dependants. Section 53 of the Act makes it unlawful for a person to refuse to grant a tenancy to another person or to instruct someone to do so because of any of the prohibited grounds of discrimination. The landlord’s instruction to exclude applicants with young children is a direct contravention of this provision. A real estate licensee’s duties are governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Rule 6.1 states that a licensee must comply with all obligations imposed by any enactment. Furthermore, Rule 9.1 requires a licensee to act in the best interests of a client, but this is qualified by the requirement to act on the client’s lawful instructions. An instruction to discriminate is unlawful and therefore cannot be followed. The licensee’s primary obligation is to the law. The correct course of action is to advise the client that their instruction is unlawful and cannot be complied with. The licensee must then proceed to assess all tenancy applications based on their individual merits, such as their ability to pay rent and their references, without regard to their family status. If the landlord insists on the discriminatory instruction, the licensee must refuse to act further on that basis and should consider terminating the agency agreement to avoid being party to an illegal act.
Incorrect
The core legal and ethical issue in this scenario is unlawful discrimination under the New Zealand Human Rights Act 1993. Section 21 of this Act lists the prohibited grounds of discrimination, which include family status. Family status is defined as having responsibility for the part-time or full-time care of children or other dependants. Section 53 of the Act makes it unlawful for a person to refuse to grant a tenancy to another person or to instruct someone to do so because of any of the prohibited grounds of discrimination. The landlord’s instruction to exclude applicants with young children is a direct contravention of this provision. A real estate licensee’s duties are governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Rule 6.1 states that a licensee must comply with all obligations imposed by any enactment. Furthermore, Rule 9.1 requires a licensee to act in the best interests of a client, but this is qualified by the requirement to act on the client’s lawful instructions. An instruction to discriminate is unlawful and therefore cannot be followed. The licensee’s primary obligation is to the law. The correct course of action is to advise the client that their instruction is unlawful and cannot be complied with. The licensee must then proceed to assess all tenancy applications based on their individual merits, such as their ability to pay rent and their references, without regard to their family status. If the landlord insists on the discriminatory instruction, the licensee must refuse to act further on that basis and should consider terminating the agency agreement to avoid being party to an illegal act.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
An investor, Hinemoa, is analysing two commercial office buildings for potential acquisition in Wellington. Property A is a modern, A-grade building in the Lambton Quay precinct with a long-term government lease. Property B is an older, B-grade building in a suburban area with multiple small tenants on short-term leases. After a thorough analysis, Hinemoa’s valuer determines that Property A has a significantly lower capitalization rate than Property B. What is the most accurate interpretation of this difference in capitalization rates?
Correct
The capitalization rate, or cap rate, is a fundamental metric in commercial real estate valuation that represents the rate of return on a property based on the income it is expected to generate. It is calculated by dividing the property’s Net Operating Income (NOI) by its current market value. The formula is expressed as \( \text{Capitalization Rate} = \frac{\text{Net Operating Income (NOI)}}{\text{Current Market Value}} \). There is an inverse relationship between the capitalization rate and the property’s value and perceived risk. A lower capitalization rate indicates that investors are willing to pay a higher price for each dollar of annual income the property generates. This typically occurs in markets or with properties that are perceived as having lower risk, stable tenancies, and strong prospects for future income growth and capital appreciation. For instance, a prime property in a central business district with a long-term lease to a reputable tenant will command a premium price from investors seeking security and long-term growth, resulting in a compressed or lower cap rate. Conversely, a higher capitalization rate implies a lower valuation relative to the income and is associated with higher perceived risk, less desirable locations, or uncertainty about future income streams. Investors demand a higher potential return (a higher cap rate) to compensate for taking on this additional risk.
Incorrect
The capitalization rate, or cap rate, is a fundamental metric in commercial real estate valuation that represents the rate of return on a property based on the income it is expected to generate. It is calculated by dividing the property’s Net Operating Income (NOI) by its current market value. The formula is expressed as \( \text{Capitalization Rate} = \frac{\text{Net Operating Income (NOI)}}{\text{Current Market Value}} \). There is an inverse relationship between the capitalization rate and the property’s value and perceived risk. A lower capitalization rate indicates that investors are willing to pay a higher price for each dollar of annual income the property generates. This typically occurs in markets or with properties that are perceived as having lower risk, stable tenancies, and strong prospects for future income growth and capital appreciation. For instance, a prime property in a central business district with a long-term lease to a reputable tenant will command a premium price from investors seeking security and long-term growth, resulting in a compressed or lower cap rate. Conversely, a higher capitalization rate implies a lower valuation relative to the income and is associated with higher perceived risk, less desirable locations, or uncertainty about future income streams. Investors demand a higher potential return (a higher cap rate) to compensate for taking on this additional risk.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider a scenario where Aroha, a licensed salesperson, observes a post on a popular local community social media group. The post, from a resident, criticises the recent sale price of a property listed by a competing agency, “Prestige Realty,” calling it “disappointingly low.” Aroha identifies an opportunity to promote her own services. Which of the following responses by Aroha would most clearly constitute a breach of her professional obligations under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012?
Correct
1. Identify the core professional obligation: Under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, a licensee has an overriding duty to act in a way that upholds the integrity and reputation of the real estate industry. 2. Analyze the specific action: The licensee posts a public comment on a social media platform directly attacking the competence and business practices of a named competitor. The comment uses disparaging language (“inexperienced,” “known for undervaluing”) and makes an unsubstantiated claim about the outcome. 3. Apply the relevant rule: Rule 9.5 states that a licensee “must not engage in any conduct that would bring, or be likely to bring, the industry into disrepute.” Publicly denigrating a fellow licensee’s professional work on a widely viewed platform directly undermines public confidence and trust in the profession as a whole. It suggests that agents are untrustworthy and prioritize their own interests over their clients’, thereby damaging the industry’s reputation. 4. Conclude the breach: The action is a clear violation of the licensee’s professional obligations. It goes beyond acceptable marketing or professional disagreement and constitutes conduct likely to bring the entire industry into disrepute, which is a form of unsatisfactory conduct. A licensee’s professional obligations extend beyond their direct interactions with clients and customers. The Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 establish a framework for behavior that maintains public trust in the industry. A key principle is the requirement to not engage in conduct likely to bring the industry into disrepute. When a licensee publicly criticizes a competitor’s specific work, particularly with unsubstantiated and disparaging remarks on a public forum like social media, they are not merely engaging in competitive marketing. This type of conduct can be perceived by the public as infighting and a lack of integrity within the profession, eroding the trust that is essential for all licensees to operate effectively. It suggests that the industry is not self-regulating or professional. While private communication between licensees to discuss professional matters or general, non-targeted marketing efforts are typically acceptable, a direct public attack on a competitor’s competence regarding a specific transaction crosses a significant ethical and professional line. Such an action is likely to be considered unsatisfactory conduct by the Real Estate Authority as it damages the collective reputation of all real estate professionals.
Incorrect
1. Identify the core professional obligation: Under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, a licensee has an overriding duty to act in a way that upholds the integrity and reputation of the real estate industry. 2. Analyze the specific action: The licensee posts a public comment on a social media platform directly attacking the competence and business practices of a named competitor. The comment uses disparaging language (“inexperienced,” “known for undervaluing”) and makes an unsubstantiated claim about the outcome. 3. Apply the relevant rule: Rule 9.5 states that a licensee “must not engage in any conduct that would bring, or be likely to bring, the industry into disrepute.” Publicly denigrating a fellow licensee’s professional work on a widely viewed platform directly undermines public confidence and trust in the profession as a whole. It suggests that agents are untrustworthy and prioritize their own interests over their clients’, thereby damaging the industry’s reputation. 4. Conclude the breach: The action is a clear violation of the licensee’s professional obligations. It goes beyond acceptable marketing or professional disagreement and constitutes conduct likely to bring the entire industry into disrepute, which is a form of unsatisfactory conduct. A licensee’s professional obligations extend beyond their direct interactions with clients and customers. The Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 establish a framework for behavior that maintains public trust in the industry. A key principle is the requirement to not engage in conduct likely to bring the industry into disrepute. When a licensee publicly criticizes a competitor’s specific work, particularly with unsubstantiated and disparaging remarks on a public forum like social media, they are not merely engaging in competitive marketing. This type of conduct can be perceived by the public as infighting and a lack of integrity within the profession, eroding the trust that is essential for all licensees to operate effectively. It suggests that the industry is not self-regulating or professional. While private communication between licensees to discuss professional matters or general, non-targeted marketing efforts are typically acceptable, a direct public attack on a competitor’s competence regarding a specific transaction crosses a significant ethical and professional line. Such an action is likely to be considered unsatisfactory conduct by the Real Estate Authority as it damages the collective reputation of all real estate professionals.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
An assessment of a complex negotiation scenario is required. Hinemoa is the agent for a vendor, David, who is keen to sell his property. Hinemoa receives a written, unconditional offer from a buyer, Liam, which is 5% below the listed price. On the same day, Hinemoa is contacted by another party, Chloe, who expresses very strong interest and indicates she would be prepared to offer a price at or even above the listed price. However, Chloe’s ability to make a formal offer is conditional upon the sale of her own home, which is not yet on the market. Given her duties under the REAA 2008 and the Code of Conduct, what is Hinemoa’s most appropriate initial action to ensure a successful and ethical negotiation outcome for her client?
Correct
The core of this scenario revolves around the agent’s fiduciary duties and obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care. The primary duty of a licensee is to act in the best interests of their client. In this situation, the agent, Hinemoa, has one firm, unconditional offer and knowledge of another potentially higher, but conditional, expression of interest. To act in the vendor’s best interest, Hinemoa must provide the vendor, David, with all material information to allow him to make a fully informed decision. This involves more than just presenting the written offer from Liam. It requires a comprehensive disclosure of the entire situation, including the terms of Liam’s offer and the full context of Chloe’s interest, highlighting both the potential for a higher price and the inherent risks associated with a conditional offer. The agent’s role is not to decide the strategy but to provide the necessary information and professional advice for the client to direct the next steps. The client, once fully informed, might decide to accept the firm offer, counter-offer to the first buyer, or instruct the agent to formalise a multi-offer process to encourage competition. The foundational step is always transparent and complete communication with the client, thereby empowering them to control the negotiation strategy that best aligns with their personal circumstances and risk tolerance.
Incorrect
The core of this scenario revolves around the agent’s fiduciary duties and obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care. The primary duty of a licensee is to act in the best interests of their client. In this situation, the agent, Hinemoa, has one firm, unconditional offer and knowledge of another potentially higher, but conditional, expression of interest. To act in the vendor’s best interest, Hinemoa must provide the vendor, David, with all material information to allow him to make a fully informed decision. This involves more than just presenting the written offer from Liam. It requires a comprehensive disclosure of the entire situation, including the terms of Liam’s offer and the full context of Chloe’s interest, highlighting both the potential for a higher price and the inherent risks associated with a conditional offer. The agent’s role is not to decide the strategy but to provide the necessary information and professional advice for the client to direct the next steps. The client, once fully informed, might decide to accept the firm offer, counter-offer to the first buyer, or instruct the agent to formalise a multi-offer process to encourage competition. The foundational step is always transparent and complete communication with the client, thereby empowering them to control the negotiation strategy that best aligns with their personal circumstances and risk tolerance.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider a scenario where Anaru, a real estate salesperson, is working with a potential buyer, Keisha, who has viewed a property multiple times and expressed significant interest. Keisha is now hesitant, citing general concerns about the current economic climate. Anaru’s client, the vendor, is eager for a quick sale. To navigate this situation professionally and ethically under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, which of the following closing approaches should Anaru adopt?
Correct
The most appropriate and professional closing strategy in this situation is to summarise the property’s features and benefits as they relate to the buyer’s expressed needs and then ask if they are ready to proceed. This approach, often called a summary or balance sheet close, is fundamentally about assisting the buyer in making an informed decision, rather than applying pressure. It respects the buyer’s autonomy and focuses the conversation on the logical alignment between the property and their requirements. This method directly adheres to the principles outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, it upholds the licensee’s obligation to treat customers fairly and to not engage in conduct that could be construed as exerting undue pressure (Rule 9.5). By recapping the facts and how they meet the buyer’s criteria, the salesperson reinforces their role as a professional facilitator. It allows the buyer to mentally review their position and come to a conclusion based on information already discussed, which is the cornerstone of ethical practice. This contrasts sharply with techniques that create false urgency or make assumptions, which can mislead the buyer and breach the rules against misleading conduct (Rule 9.2) and bringing the industry into disrepute.
Incorrect
The most appropriate and professional closing strategy in this situation is to summarise the property’s features and benefits as they relate to the buyer’s expressed needs and then ask if they are ready to proceed. This approach, often called a summary or balance sheet close, is fundamentally about assisting the buyer in making an informed decision, rather than applying pressure. It respects the buyer’s autonomy and focuses the conversation on the logical alignment between the property and their requirements. This method directly adheres to the principles outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, it upholds the licensee’s obligation to treat customers fairly and to not engage in conduct that could be construed as exerting undue pressure (Rule 9.5). By recapping the facts and how they meet the buyer’s criteria, the salesperson reinforces their role as a professional facilitator. It allows the buyer to mentally review their position and come to a conclusion based on information already discussed, which is the cornerstone of ethical practice. This contrasts sharply with techniques that create false urgency or make assumptions, which can mislead the buyer and breach the rules against misleading conduct (Rule 9.2) and bringing the industry into disrepute.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Anaru, a licensed salesperson, is preparing a market appraisal for a residential property in Hamilton. The property is structurally sound but has a roof that will require replacement within five years. The kitchen and bathroom fixtures are from the 1980s, and the floor plan is less open than what is currently popular. The most significant recent change is the rezoning of an adjacent block from residential to light industrial, which has resulted in a new logistics depot operating 24/7, creating constant noise and heavy vehicle traffic. In assessing the property’s value, which of the following best describes the most fundamental and irremediable challenge to its marketability?
Correct
The logical deduction to determine the most significant form of depreciation involves analysing the nature and curability of each value-detracting factor. Let total depreciation, \(D\), be the sum of its components: \[D = D_{phys} + D_{func} + D_{ext}\] Where: \(D_{phys}\) = Physical Deterioration (e.g., aging roof). This is typically curable, and its impact can be estimated by the cost to cure. \(D_{func}\) = Functional Obsolescence (e.g., outdated kitchen, poor layout). This is often curable through renovation, and its impact is related to the cost of modernisation and current market preferences. \(D_{ext}\) = External Obsolescence (e.g., adverse zoning changes, nearby nuisance). This is caused by factors external to the property and is considered incurable by the property owner. Analysis of Factors: 1. Aging Roof (\(D_{phys}\)): This is a curable defect. The cost of replacement is finite and can be negotiated or factored into the purchase price. It does not fundamentally alter the long-term desirability of the location. 2. Outdated Interior (\(D_{func}\)): This is also curable. A new owner can choose to renovate the kitchen and bathroom. While it affects value, the problem can be remedied with investment. 3. Adjacent Industrial Depot (\(D_{ext}\)): This factor is beyond the control of the property owner. The negative impacts, such as constant noise and traffic, permanently affect the living environment and the essential character of the location. This type of depreciation is incurable and often leads to a significant, long-term reduction in the property’s value because it deters a wide range of potential buyers who prioritise a quiet residential setting. Conclusion: The incurable nature of external obsolescence makes it the most fundamental and severe challenge to the property’s market value compared to the curable physical and functional issues. In property valuation, understanding the different forms of depreciation is crucial for providing an accurate market appraisal. Depreciation refers to a loss in a property’s value from any cause. It is broadly categorised into three types. The first is physical deterioration, which is the loss in value from wear and tear, structural decay, or the action of the elements. This includes issues like a leaky roof or worn-out carpeting. These problems are often considered curable, meaning they can be fixed at a cost that is less than the resulting increase in property value. The second type is functional obsolescence, which is a loss in value due to outdated design features, poor layout, or inadequate facilities that do not meet current market standards. Examples include a house with only one bathroom in a market that demands two, or a kitchen with 1980s fixtures. Like physical deterioration, this can often be cured through renovation. The third and most severe type is external obsolescence, also known as economic obsolescence. This is a loss in value caused by negative factors outside of the property’s boundaries, such as adverse zoning changes, proximity to an airport or industrial site, or a general economic decline in the area. This form of depreciation is almost always incurable by the property owner and can have the most profound and lasting negative impact on a property’s marketability and value.
Incorrect
The logical deduction to determine the most significant form of depreciation involves analysing the nature and curability of each value-detracting factor. Let total depreciation, \(D\), be the sum of its components: \[D = D_{phys} + D_{func} + D_{ext}\] Where: \(D_{phys}\) = Physical Deterioration (e.g., aging roof). This is typically curable, and its impact can be estimated by the cost to cure. \(D_{func}\) = Functional Obsolescence (e.g., outdated kitchen, poor layout). This is often curable through renovation, and its impact is related to the cost of modernisation and current market preferences. \(D_{ext}\) = External Obsolescence (e.g., adverse zoning changes, nearby nuisance). This is caused by factors external to the property and is considered incurable by the property owner. Analysis of Factors: 1. Aging Roof (\(D_{phys}\)): This is a curable defect. The cost of replacement is finite and can be negotiated or factored into the purchase price. It does not fundamentally alter the long-term desirability of the location. 2. Outdated Interior (\(D_{func}\)): This is also curable. A new owner can choose to renovate the kitchen and bathroom. While it affects value, the problem can be remedied with investment. 3. Adjacent Industrial Depot (\(D_{ext}\)): This factor is beyond the control of the property owner. The negative impacts, such as constant noise and traffic, permanently affect the living environment and the essential character of the location. This type of depreciation is incurable and often leads to a significant, long-term reduction in the property’s value because it deters a wide range of potential buyers who prioritise a quiet residential setting. Conclusion: The incurable nature of external obsolescence makes it the most fundamental and severe challenge to the property’s market value compared to the curable physical and functional issues. In property valuation, understanding the different forms of depreciation is crucial for providing an accurate market appraisal. Depreciation refers to a loss in a property’s value from any cause. It is broadly categorised into three types. The first is physical deterioration, which is the loss in value from wear and tear, structural decay, or the action of the elements. This includes issues like a leaky roof or worn-out carpeting. These problems are often considered curable, meaning they can be fixed at a cost that is less than the resulting increase in property value. The second type is functional obsolescence, which is a loss in value due to outdated design features, poor layout, or inadequate facilities that do not meet current market standards. Examples include a house with only one bathroom in a market that demands two, or a kitchen with 1980s fixtures. Like physical deterioration, this can often be cured through renovation. The third and most severe type is external obsolescence, also known as economic obsolescence. This is a loss in value caused by negative factors outside of the property’s boundaries, such as adverse zoning changes, proximity to an airport or industrial site, or a general economic decline in the area. This form of depreciation is almost always incurable by the property owner and can have the most profound and lasting negative impact on a property’s marketability and value.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The directors of ‘Aotearoa Freight Solutions’ (AFS) have tasked their salesperson, Matiu, with providing a formal written appraisal for an industrial property immediately adjacent to their main depot. Acquiring this property would provide AFS with critical yard space, resolving a major logistical issue and enabling a planned expansion. The directors have informed Matiu that, due to these unique strategic benefits, they are prepared to offer a price significantly above recent sales of similar, but not adjacent, properties in the area. Given his obligations under New Zealand’s professional conduct rules, which statement correctly identifies the principle that must guide Matiu’s appraisal and the concept that describes the potential price premium?
Correct
Step 1: Identify the primary valuation concepts in the scenario. The scenario presents two distinct value perspectives: the price a typical buyer would pay for the property and the higher price a specific, adjacent owner (Aotearoa Freight Solutions) is willing to pay due to unique strategic advantages. Step 2: Define the relevant concepts. Market Value is the estimated price a property would fetch on the open market in an arm’s-length transaction between a knowledgeable, willing buyer and seller, neither being under compulsion to act. This value does not account for special or unique interests of a particular buyer. Investment Value (or Special Value) is the value of a property to a particular investor or user, based on their individual investment objectives or operational needs. This value can be higher than Market Value if the property offers unique benefits to that specific party, such as the synergistic value of combining adjacent lots (plottage). Step 3: Apply the concepts to the agent’s professional duty. A real estate salesperson, when providing a written appraisal under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, has a duty to provide an honest and realistic assessment based on current market conditions and comparable sales data. Therefore, the formal appraisal document must be grounded in the property’s Market Value. To do otherwise would be misleading. Step 4: Synthesize the conclusion. The agent, Matiu, must base his formal written appraisal on the property’s Market Value to uphold his professional obligations. The additional amount that Aotearoa Freight Solutions is willing to pay due to the specific operational advantages it would gain represents the property’s Investment Value to them. The agent can advise the client on this strategic premium separately, but the official appraisal must reflect the objective Market Value.
Incorrect
Step 1: Identify the primary valuation concepts in the scenario. The scenario presents two distinct value perspectives: the price a typical buyer would pay for the property and the higher price a specific, adjacent owner (Aotearoa Freight Solutions) is willing to pay due to unique strategic advantages. Step 2: Define the relevant concepts. Market Value is the estimated price a property would fetch on the open market in an arm’s-length transaction between a knowledgeable, willing buyer and seller, neither being under compulsion to act. This value does not account for special or unique interests of a particular buyer. Investment Value (or Special Value) is the value of a property to a particular investor or user, based on their individual investment objectives or operational needs. This value can be higher than Market Value if the property offers unique benefits to that specific party, such as the synergistic value of combining adjacent lots (plottage). Step 3: Apply the concepts to the agent’s professional duty. A real estate salesperson, when providing a written appraisal under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, has a duty to provide an honest and realistic assessment based on current market conditions and comparable sales data. Therefore, the formal appraisal document must be grounded in the property’s Market Value. To do otherwise would be misleading. Step 4: Synthesize the conclusion. The agent, Matiu, must base his formal written appraisal on the property’s Market Value to uphold his professional obligations. The additional amount that Aotearoa Freight Solutions is willing to pay due to the specific operational advantages it would gain represents the property’s Investment Value to them. The agent can advise the client on this strategic premium separately, but the official appraisal must reflect the objective Market Value.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following case: Tane acquired a residential property in Nelson, with the title being registered in his name on 18 August 2021. He lived in the property as his main home until 1 December 2023, at which point he relocated for work and leased the property to tenants. On 25 February 2026, he signed a binding sale and purchase agreement to sell the property, with the sale yielding a significant capital gain. Based on the bright-line property rule, what is the most accurate assessment of Tane’s tax situation regarding the gain from this sale?
Correct
The bright-line property rule determines if income tax is payable on the profit from selling a residential property. The applicable bright-line period depends on the acquisition date. For a property acquired on or after 27 March 2021, the bright-line period is 10 years. The acquisition date is the date the title is registered, and the disposal date is the date a binding sale and purchase agreement is signed. In this scenario: Acquisition Date (Title Registration): 18 August 2021 Disposal Date (Sale Agreement Signed): 25 February 2026 The ownership period is from 18 August 2021 to 25 February 2026. This is approximately 4.5 years. The applicable bright-line period is 10 years. The calculation to determine if the sale is within the period is: \[ \text{Ownership Period (approx. 4.5 years)} < \text{Bright-line Period (10 years)} \] Since the ownership period is less than the 10-year bright-line period, the sale is subject to the rule, and the profit is potentially taxable. Next, we must consider the main home exemption. This exemption only applies if the property has been used as the owner's main home for the entire ownership period. Tane lived in the property initially but then rented it out for a significant portion of the time before selling it. Because the property was not his main home for the full duration of his ownership, the main home exemption does not fully absolve him of tax liability. Instead, the taxable income from the sale must be apportioned. The portion of the gain corresponding to the time the property was not his main home will be subject to income tax. A salesperson must understand this nuance to provide accurate advice regarding potential tax implications, without giving specific tax advice.
Incorrect
The bright-line property rule determines if income tax is payable on the profit from selling a residential property. The applicable bright-line period depends on the acquisition date. For a property acquired on or after 27 March 2021, the bright-line period is 10 years. The acquisition date is the date the title is registered, and the disposal date is the date a binding sale and purchase agreement is signed. In this scenario: Acquisition Date (Title Registration): 18 August 2021 Disposal Date (Sale Agreement Signed): 25 February 2026 The ownership period is from 18 August 2021 to 25 February 2026. This is approximately 4.5 years. The applicable bright-line period is 10 years. The calculation to determine if the sale is within the period is: \[ \text{Ownership Period (approx. 4.5 years)} < \text{Bright-line Period (10 years)} \] Since the ownership period is less than the 10-year bright-line period, the sale is subject to the rule, and the profit is potentially taxable. Next, we must consider the main home exemption. This exemption only applies if the property has been used as the owner's main home for the entire ownership period. Tane lived in the property initially but then rented it out for a significant portion of the time before selling it. Because the property was not his main home for the full duration of his ownership, the main home exemption does not fully absolve him of tax liability. Instead, the taxable income from the sale must be apportioned. The portion of the gain corresponding to the time the property was not his main home will be subject to income tax. A salesperson must understand this nuance to provide accurate advice regarding potential tax implications, without giving specific tax advice.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
An assessment of a new listing by salesperson Anaru reveals a potential compliance issue. The property, a rural lifestyle block, has a large high-voltage power pylon situated on its boundary. For the primary online listing photograph and the cover of the marketing brochure, Anaru has used editing software to completely remove the pylon from the image, creating an unobstructed view. The written description does not mention the pylon. Which statement most accurately identifies the primary professional failure in this marketing approach under the REA Code of Conduct?
Correct
The logical deduction to arrive at the correct conclusion involves analysing the agent’s actions against the specific rules outlined in the Real Estate Authority (REA) Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, often referred to as the Code of Conduct. The agent, Anaru, has actively altered a photograph to remove a significant, permanent, and potentially detrimental feature of the property—a high-voltage power pylon. This action is not a passive omission but a deliberate act of misrepresentation within advertising materials. The primary rule governing this conduct is Rule 10.4, which explicitly states that a licensee must not mislead customers or clients, provide false information, or withhold information that should be provided. By digitally erasing the pylon from the main marketing image, Anaru is creating a visual representation that is fundamentally false and misleads potential buyers about the true state and surroundings of the property. While other rules, such as the duty to disclose known defects (Rule 10.7), are also relevant to the situation, the most direct and primary breach is the creation and dissemination of misleading advertising. The act of photo manipulation is a specific form of advertising conduct, making the advertising rule the most pertinent one to identify as the principal failure. The intention behind such rules is to ensure the integrity of the market and to protect consumers from making decisions based on deceptive information.
Incorrect
The logical deduction to arrive at the correct conclusion involves analysing the agent’s actions against the specific rules outlined in the Real Estate Authority (REA) Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, often referred to as the Code of Conduct. The agent, Anaru, has actively altered a photograph to remove a significant, permanent, and potentially detrimental feature of the property—a high-voltage power pylon. This action is not a passive omission but a deliberate act of misrepresentation within advertising materials. The primary rule governing this conduct is Rule 10.4, which explicitly states that a licensee must not mislead customers or clients, provide false information, or withhold information that should be provided. By digitally erasing the pylon from the main marketing image, Anaru is creating a visual representation that is fundamentally false and misleads potential buyers about the true state and surroundings of the property. While other rules, such as the duty to disclose known defects (Rule 10.7), are also relevant to the situation, the most direct and primary breach is the creation and dissemination of misleading advertising. The act of photo manipulation is a specific form of advertising conduct, making the advertising rule the most pertinent one to identify as the principal failure. The intention behind such rules is to ensure the integrity of the market and to protect consumers from making decisions based on deceptive information.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Assessment of a complex listing scenario reveals multiple potential risks. A salesperson, Anaru, is engaged by a vendor, Mei, to sell her property. During their initial discussion, Mei discloses that a bathroom leak occurred four years ago, which her husband, a DIY enthusiast, repaired himself. No council consent was sought for this work. Furthermore, Anaru is aware from local council data that the general suburb is designated as being susceptible to land subsidence, although Mei’s property shows no visible signs of damage. To best fulfill his duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and its Code of Conduct, what is Anaru’s most appropriate risk management action?
Correct
Logical Deduction Process: 1. Identify Key Risks: The primary risks are the unconsented bathroom repairs conducted by a non-professional and the property’s location in an area known for potential land subsidence. The unconsented work constitutes a potential defect under the Building Act 2004 and is a material fact. The subsidence risk is a known environmental hazard that could influence a purchaser’s decision. 2. Analyze Professional Obligations: Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, a licensee has a duty of fairness to all parties. Rule 10.7 specifically requires a licensee to disclose known defects to a customer. Withholding information about unconsented work and the history of a leak would be a breach of this rule and could also constitute misleading conduct under the Fair Trading Act 1986. 3. Evaluate Mitigation Strategies: The core of risk management in this context is disclosure and the recommendation of independent verification. Simply advising a standard LIM report is insufficient as it may not detail the quality of the repair. Ignoring the DIY nature of the repair is a direct omission of a material fact. The most robust strategy involves transparently communicating all known information. 4. Conclude on Best Practice: The salesperson must inform the vendor, Mei, of their obligation to disclose these matters. Subsequently, all prospective purchasers must be proactively informed about the history of the leak, the fact the repair was a DIY job without council consent, and the general land subsidence risk for the area. To complete this duty of care, the salesperson must also strongly recommend that purchasers conduct their own comprehensive due diligence, which should include obtaining a building inspection report from a qualified professional and reviewing the Land Information Memorandum (LIM) report. This approach mitigates risk for the licensee, the agency, the vendor, and ensures purchasers are fully informed. A salesperson’s primary responsibility in managing risk involves transparency and ensuring all parties are equipped to make informed decisions. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Code of Conduct place a strong emphasis on fairness and honesty. When a salesperson becomes aware of potential issues, such as unconsented works or known environmental hazards, they have an obligation to disclose these facts. Unconsented work is considered a defect, as it has not been verified against the Building Code and could have implications for the property’s durability, safety, and insurance coverage. Simply stating a repair was done is not enough; the nature of the repair, being a DIY job without consent, is a critical piece of information. Similarly, while a general area risk like subsidence might be public knowledge, a licensee’s duty of care involves specifically highlighting such risks related to the property. The most effective risk mitigation strategy is therefore a combination of full disclosure of all known facts and strongly advising purchasers to seek independent, expert advice through mechanisms like building inspections and legal review of property files. This ensures the purchaser is not misled and protects the licensee from complaints of unsatisfactory conduct or misrepresentation.
Incorrect
Logical Deduction Process: 1. Identify Key Risks: The primary risks are the unconsented bathroom repairs conducted by a non-professional and the property’s location in an area known for potential land subsidence. The unconsented work constitutes a potential defect under the Building Act 2004 and is a material fact. The subsidence risk is a known environmental hazard that could influence a purchaser’s decision. 2. Analyze Professional Obligations: Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, a licensee has a duty of fairness to all parties. Rule 10.7 specifically requires a licensee to disclose known defects to a customer. Withholding information about unconsented work and the history of a leak would be a breach of this rule and could also constitute misleading conduct under the Fair Trading Act 1986. 3. Evaluate Mitigation Strategies: The core of risk management in this context is disclosure and the recommendation of independent verification. Simply advising a standard LIM report is insufficient as it may not detail the quality of the repair. Ignoring the DIY nature of the repair is a direct omission of a material fact. The most robust strategy involves transparently communicating all known information. 4. Conclude on Best Practice: The salesperson must inform the vendor, Mei, of their obligation to disclose these matters. Subsequently, all prospective purchasers must be proactively informed about the history of the leak, the fact the repair was a DIY job without council consent, and the general land subsidence risk for the area. To complete this duty of care, the salesperson must also strongly recommend that purchasers conduct their own comprehensive due diligence, which should include obtaining a building inspection report from a qualified professional and reviewing the Land Information Memorandum (LIM) report. This approach mitigates risk for the licensee, the agency, the vendor, and ensures purchasers are fully informed. A salesperson’s primary responsibility in managing risk involves transparency and ensuring all parties are equipped to make informed decisions. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Code of Conduct place a strong emphasis on fairness and honesty. When a salesperson becomes aware of potential issues, such as unconsented works or known environmental hazards, they have an obligation to disclose these facts. Unconsented work is considered a defect, as it has not been verified against the Building Code and could have implications for the property’s durability, safety, and insurance coverage. Simply stating a repair was done is not enough; the nature of the repair, being a DIY job without consent, is a critical piece of information. Similarly, while a general area risk like subsidence might be public knowledge, a licensee’s duty of care involves specifically highlighting such risks related to the property. The most effective risk mitigation strategy is therefore a combination of full disclosure of all known facts and strongly advising purchasers to seek independent, expert advice through mechanisms like building inspections and legal review of property files. This ensures the purchaser is not misled and protects the licensee from complaints of unsatisfactory conduct or misrepresentation.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Aroha, a licensed salesperson, was employed by “Prestige Realty” from 2019 until the end of 2022. In January 2023, she began working for a new agency, “Summit Properties”. Both agencies have always maintained professional indemnity (PI) insurance policies that meet the minimum standards required by New Zealand law. In mid-2024, a former client lodges a formal complaint and legal claim against Aroha, alleging a significant negligent misstatement during a property sale she handled in 2021 while at Prestige Realty. Considering the typical structure of PI insurance in New Zealand, which entity’s policy is expected to respond to this claim?
Correct
The determination of which insurance policy responds is based on a key principle of professional indemnity insurance. Date of Alleged Negligent Act: 2021 (while Aroha was at Agency A) Date of Claim Lodgement: 2024 (while Aroha is at Agency B) Governing Principle: Professional Indemnity (PI) insurance in New Zealand operates on a “claims made” basis. Application of Principle: The policy that is triggered is the one in effect at the time the claim is formally made against the licensee or agency, not the policy that was in effect when the alleged error or omission occurred. Liability: The alleged negligent act occurred while Aroha was acting as an employee of Agency A. Therefore, Agency A holds the vicarious liability for her actions during that period. Conclusion: The claim was lodged in 2024. The liability rests with Agency A for the 2021 event. Therefore, Agency A’s PI insurance policy that is current in 2024 is the one that must respond to the claim. Professional indemnity insurance is a mandatory requirement for all licensed real estate professionals in New Zealand under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008. A critical feature of this type of insurance is that it is almost universally offered on a “claims made” basis. This principle dictates that the insurance policy in force at the time a claim is officially lodged is the one that provides cover, regardless of when the incident that led to the claim actually happened. This is distinct from an “occurrence” based policy, where the policy active at the time of the incident would respond. In this scenario, the alleged negligent misstatement occurred in 2021. However, the claim was not brought forward until 2024. Because the insurance is “claims made”, the policy held by Agency A in 2024 is the one that is triggered. Agency A remains vicariously liable for the professional conduct of its employees, even after they have left the agency, for acts committed during their employment. Agency B’s policy is not relevant as the event did not take place while Aroha was under their employment. This highlights the importance for agencies to maintain continuous, uninterrupted PI cover to protect against historical events that may lead to future claims.
Incorrect
The determination of which insurance policy responds is based on a key principle of professional indemnity insurance. Date of Alleged Negligent Act: 2021 (while Aroha was at Agency A) Date of Claim Lodgement: 2024 (while Aroha is at Agency B) Governing Principle: Professional Indemnity (PI) insurance in New Zealand operates on a “claims made” basis. Application of Principle: The policy that is triggered is the one in effect at the time the claim is formally made against the licensee or agency, not the policy that was in effect when the alleged error or omission occurred. Liability: The alleged negligent act occurred while Aroha was acting as an employee of Agency A. Therefore, Agency A holds the vicarious liability for her actions during that period. Conclusion: The claim was lodged in 2024. The liability rests with Agency A for the 2021 event. Therefore, Agency A’s PI insurance policy that is current in 2024 is the one that must respond to the claim. Professional indemnity insurance is a mandatory requirement for all licensed real estate professionals in New Zealand under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008. A critical feature of this type of insurance is that it is almost universally offered on a “claims made” basis. This principle dictates that the insurance policy in force at the time a claim is officially lodged is the one that provides cover, regardless of when the incident that led to the claim actually happened. This is distinct from an “occurrence” based policy, where the policy active at the time of the incident would respond. In this scenario, the alleged negligent misstatement occurred in 2021. However, the claim was not brought forward until 2024. Because the insurance is “claims made”, the policy held by Agency A in 2024 is the one that is triggered. Agency A remains vicariously liable for the professional conduct of its employees, even after they have left the agency, for acts committed during their employment. Agency B’s policy is not relevant as the event did not take place while Aroha was under their employment. This highlights the importance for agencies to maintain continuous, uninterrupted PI cover to protect against historical events that may lead to future claims.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider a scenario where Aroha, a licensee with Prestige Realty, is marketing a residential property for her client, Mr. Chen. In the online listing and marketing brochures, Aroha states that the property is ‘guaranteed to be within the zone for the highly-regarded Oakview High School.’ The Miller family, relying heavily on this specific information for their children’s education, proceeds with the purchase. After the sale becomes unconditional and settlement occurs, they discover the property is actually located just outside the official school zone boundary. An investigation reveals Aroha failed to verify the current zoning map provided by the local council. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary legal position of the Miller family in relation to the agent, Aroha?
Correct
The logical analysis to determine the correct legal position involves these steps: 1. Identify the parties and their relationships. Aroha is the service provider (agent). Mr. Chen is the client who engaged her services (vendor). The Miller family are the purchasers. 2. Determine the applicability of the Consumer Guarantees Act 1993 (CGA). The CGA applies to the supply of services to a “consumer”. In this context, the consumer of the real estate agency’s services is the person who listed the property for sale, Mr. Chen. The Miller family did not engage Aroha’s services; they are the counterparty to the transaction. Therefore, the CGA does not provide the Miller family with a direct cause of action against Aroha. Mr. Chen, however, could potentially have a claim against Aroha under the CGA for her failure to provide services with reasonable care and skill. 3. Determine the applicability of the Fair Trading Act 1986 (FTA). The FTA prohibits misleading and deceptive conduct “in trade”. Aroha, as a licensee, is acting in trade. Her statement about the school zoning was a representation made in the course of her business. This representation was factually incorrect and was relied upon by the Millers, causing them to enter into the contract. 4. Conclude the primary legal recourse. Because the Millers are not the “consumer” under the CGA, their primary and most direct claim against the agent, Aroha, is for a breach of the Fair Trading Act 1986, specifically Section 9 which covers misleading and deceptive conduct. The Consumer Guarantees Act 1993 is a critical piece of legislation that implies certain guarantees into contracts for the supply of goods and services to consumers. For a real estate agent, the primary “consumer” is the vendor who has signed an agency agreement. The service provided by the agent is guaranteed to be carried out with reasonable care and skill. If an agent fails in this duty, for instance by providing poor advice or mishandling the marketing, the vendor has remedies under the CGA. However, the CGA does not typically apply to the property itself, nor does it create a direct relationship between the agent and a prospective purchaser. A purchaser who has been misled by an agent’s representations must look to different legislation for a remedy. The Fair Trading Act 1986 is designed to protect all parties in the marketplace from misleading and deceptive conduct in trade. An agent’s incorrect statements about a property’s features, such as zoning, fall squarely within the scope of the FTA. Therefore, a purchaser who relies on such a misrepresentation to their detriment has a strong basis for a claim against the agent under the FTA, not the CGA.
Incorrect
The logical analysis to determine the correct legal position involves these steps: 1. Identify the parties and their relationships. Aroha is the service provider (agent). Mr. Chen is the client who engaged her services (vendor). The Miller family are the purchasers. 2. Determine the applicability of the Consumer Guarantees Act 1993 (CGA). The CGA applies to the supply of services to a “consumer”. In this context, the consumer of the real estate agency’s services is the person who listed the property for sale, Mr. Chen. The Miller family did not engage Aroha’s services; they are the counterparty to the transaction. Therefore, the CGA does not provide the Miller family with a direct cause of action against Aroha. Mr. Chen, however, could potentially have a claim against Aroha under the CGA for her failure to provide services with reasonable care and skill. 3. Determine the applicability of the Fair Trading Act 1986 (FTA). The FTA prohibits misleading and deceptive conduct “in trade”. Aroha, as a licensee, is acting in trade. Her statement about the school zoning was a representation made in the course of her business. This representation was factually incorrect and was relied upon by the Millers, causing them to enter into the contract. 4. Conclude the primary legal recourse. Because the Millers are not the “consumer” under the CGA, their primary and most direct claim against the agent, Aroha, is for a breach of the Fair Trading Act 1986, specifically Section 9 which covers misleading and deceptive conduct. The Consumer Guarantees Act 1993 is a critical piece of legislation that implies certain guarantees into contracts for the supply of goods and services to consumers. For a real estate agent, the primary “consumer” is the vendor who has signed an agency agreement. The service provided by the agent is guaranteed to be carried out with reasonable care and skill. If an agent fails in this duty, for instance by providing poor advice or mishandling the marketing, the vendor has remedies under the CGA. However, the CGA does not typically apply to the property itself, nor does it create a direct relationship between the agent and a prospective purchaser. A purchaser who has been misled by an agent’s representations must look to different legislation for a remedy. The Fair Trading Act 1986 is designed to protect all parties in the marketplace from misleading and deceptive conduct in trade. An agent’s incorrect statements about a property’s features, such as zoning, fall squarely within the scope of the FTA. Therefore, a purchaser who relies on such a misrepresentation to their detriment has a strong basis for a claim against the agent under the FTA, not the CGA.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Anaru is the listing agent for a property constructed in 2003 with a monolithic cladding system. The vendor discloses that a 2019 building report identified elevated moisture readings in one wall, but they assure Anaru that comprehensive repairs were completed by a certified builder shortly after. When a prospective purchaser, Mei, expresses concern about the cladding, what is the most appropriate action for Anaru to take to meet his obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012?
Correct
Logical Deduction to the Correct Action: 1. Identify Known Information: The property has monolithic cladding, a 5-year-old report showed moisture, and the vendor claims repairs were done. All are material facts. 2. Identify Salesperson’s Duties (REAA 2008 & Code of Conduct 2012): – Rule 10.7: Disclose known defects. The history of moisture is a known defect, even if claimed to be repaired. – Rule 9.2: Not to mislead customers. Presenting the vendor’s claim as a verified fact is potentially misleading. – Rule 9.7: Recommend expert advice for matters outside the licensee’s expertise. Building integrity is such a matter. 3. Synthesize Action: The salesperson must disclose ALL known information (cladding type, old report, vendor’s claim) AND advise the buyer to get their own independent, current expert advice (a new building report). 4. Conclusion: This course of action fulfills all duties by being transparent, avoiding misrepresentation, and promoting informed due diligence by the buyer. A real estate salesperson has a fundamental duty of care to both their client, the vendor, and to customers, the potential purchasers. This duty is governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Code of Conduct. In situations involving potential building defects, particularly with high-risk materials like monolithic cladding from the early 2000s, these obligations become critical. The salesperson must disclose any known defects to an interested party. In this scenario, the historical moisture issue identified in the 2019 report constitutes a known defect, even with the vendor’s assurance of repair. Withholding this information would be a breach of Rule 10.7 of the Code of Conduct. Furthermore, a salesperson is not a qualified building surveyor and must not provide opinions or assurances on technical matters outside their expertise. To do so could be considered misleading under the Fair Trading Act 1986 and a breach of the Code of Conduct. The most professionally responsible path is to provide all known information transparently—the cladding type, the existence and findings of the old report, and the vendor’s statement about repairs—while explicitly stating that they cannot verify the current condition. They must then strongly recommend that the purchaser conduct their own due diligence by commissioning a new, independent building inspection to satisfy themselves of the property’s integrity. This approach ensures transparency, avoids misrepresentation, and fulfills the duty to recommend expert advice.
Incorrect
Logical Deduction to the Correct Action: 1. Identify Known Information: The property has monolithic cladding, a 5-year-old report showed moisture, and the vendor claims repairs were done. All are material facts. 2. Identify Salesperson’s Duties (REAA 2008 & Code of Conduct 2012): – Rule 10.7: Disclose known defects. The history of moisture is a known defect, even if claimed to be repaired. – Rule 9.2: Not to mislead customers. Presenting the vendor’s claim as a verified fact is potentially misleading. – Rule 9.7: Recommend expert advice for matters outside the licensee’s expertise. Building integrity is such a matter. 3. Synthesize Action: The salesperson must disclose ALL known information (cladding type, old report, vendor’s claim) AND advise the buyer to get their own independent, current expert advice (a new building report). 4. Conclusion: This course of action fulfills all duties by being transparent, avoiding misrepresentation, and promoting informed due diligence by the buyer. A real estate salesperson has a fundamental duty of care to both their client, the vendor, and to customers, the potential purchasers. This duty is governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Code of Conduct. In situations involving potential building defects, particularly with high-risk materials like monolithic cladding from the early 2000s, these obligations become critical. The salesperson must disclose any known defects to an interested party. In this scenario, the historical moisture issue identified in the 2019 report constitutes a known defect, even with the vendor’s assurance of repair. Withholding this information would be a breach of Rule 10.7 of the Code of Conduct. Furthermore, a salesperson is not a qualified building surveyor and must not provide opinions or assurances on technical matters outside their expertise. To do so could be considered misleading under the Fair Trading Act 1986 and a breach of the Code of Conduct. The most professionally responsible path is to provide all known information transparently—the cladding type, the existence and findings of the old report, and the vendor’s statement about repairs—while explicitly stating that they cannot verify the current condition. They must then strongly recommend that the purchaser conduct their own due diligence by commissioning a new, independent building inspection to satisfy themselves of the property’s integrity. This approach ensures transparency, avoids misrepresentation, and fulfills the duty to recommend expert advice.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider a scenario where a real estate salesperson, Matiu, is working with first-time homebuyers, Anika and Ben. During a conversation about making an offer, Anika asks, “We’re a bit lost with the mortgage process. In your experience, given the current market uncertainty, do you think we’d be better off with a fixed-rate or a floating-rate mortgage?” What is the most professionally responsible and legally compliant course of action for Matiu to take?
Correct
The correct course of action is for the salesperson to explicitly state they are not licensed to provide financial advice and to refer the clients to a qualified professional. Under the Financial Markets Conduct Act 2013, providing a recommendation or opinion about a financial product that is tailored to an individual’s circumstances is considered regulated financial advice. This type of advice can only be given by individuals or entities licensed by the Financial Markets Authority (FMA). A real estate salesperson’s license does not permit them to provide financial advice. Recommending a specific mortgage structure, such as a fixed versus a floating interest rate, directly relates to a financial product and the clients’ personal financial situation. Even presenting the general pros and cons in response to their specific query could be construed as guiding their decision, thereby crossing the line from providing general information to giving advice. A verbal disclaimer that one is not a financial advisor is insufficient to mitigate the legal risk if the subsequent conversation constitutes advice. The most professional and legally compliant action is to maintain a clear boundary, refuse to offer any opinion or detailed comparison, and immediately direct the clients to seek assistance from a licensed mortgage advisor or financial planner. This protects the salesperson from potential legal and disciplinary action and ensures the clients receive competent, regulated advice tailored to their needs.
Incorrect
The correct course of action is for the salesperson to explicitly state they are not licensed to provide financial advice and to refer the clients to a qualified professional. Under the Financial Markets Conduct Act 2013, providing a recommendation or opinion about a financial product that is tailored to an individual’s circumstances is considered regulated financial advice. This type of advice can only be given by individuals or entities licensed by the Financial Markets Authority (FMA). A real estate salesperson’s license does not permit them to provide financial advice. Recommending a specific mortgage structure, such as a fixed versus a floating interest rate, directly relates to a financial product and the clients’ personal financial situation. Even presenting the general pros and cons in response to their specific query could be construed as guiding their decision, thereby crossing the line from providing general information to giving advice. A verbal disclaimer that one is not a financial advisor is insufficient to mitigate the legal risk if the subsequent conversation constitutes advice. The most professional and legally compliant action is to maintain a clear boundary, refuse to offer any opinion or detailed comparison, and immediately direct the clients to seek assistance from a licensed mortgage advisor or financial planner. This protects the salesperson from potential legal and disciplinary action and ensures the clients receive competent, regulated advice tailored to their needs.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Assessment of the following situation is required. Anaru, a licensed salesperson, is marketing a residential property. The vendor has provided him with a six-month-old LIM report and a building report commissioned by the vendor just last week. The LIM report indicates that a building consent for a large deck was issued in 2010, but it shows no record of a Code Compliance Certificate (CCC) being issued. The vendor’s building report, conducted by a reputable firm, states the deck appears “structurally sound and built to a high standard of workmanship”. A prospective purchaser, Chloe, expresses strong interest and asks Anaru for his perspective on these documents. What is Anaru’s most critical professional obligation in this instance to comply with the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012?
Correct
The core issue in this scenario revolves around the distinction between a council’s official records and a private expert’s opinion, and the salesperson’s corresponding duties under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. The Land Information Memorandum (LIM) reveals a significant legal and compliance issue: a building consent was issued for the deck, but no subsequent Code Compliance Certificate (CCC) was recorded by the council. A CCC is the official declaration that the building work complies with the Building Code at the time of inspection. Its absence is a known potential defect that can have serious implications for a property owner, including issues with obtaining insurance, difficulties with future sales, and the risk of the council issuing a notice to fix. The vendor-supplied building report, while stating the deck is “structurally sound”, is an opinion on the physical condition of the structure at a single point in time. It does not and cannot legally substitute for a CCC. A builder’s assessment of soundness does not rectify the lack of official compliance. Therefore, Anaru’s primary professional obligation, as mandated by the Rules (specifically Rule 10.7 regarding the disclosure of known defects and Rule 9.7 regarding the recommendation of expert advice), is to ensure the prospective purchaser, Chloe, is made explicitly aware of the missing CCC. He must explain that this is a potential defect and advise her to seek independent legal advice to understand the full risks and implications before proceeding with the purchase. Simply relying on the building report or focusing on other procedural matters would fail to address the most critical known issue affecting the property’s legal status.
Incorrect
The core issue in this scenario revolves around the distinction between a council’s official records and a private expert’s opinion, and the salesperson’s corresponding duties under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. The Land Information Memorandum (LIM) reveals a significant legal and compliance issue: a building consent was issued for the deck, but no subsequent Code Compliance Certificate (CCC) was recorded by the council. A CCC is the official declaration that the building work complies with the Building Code at the time of inspection. Its absence is a known potential defect that can have serious implications for a property owner, including issues with obtaining insurance, difficulties with future sales, and the risk of the council issuing a notice to fix. The vendor-supplied building report, while stating the deck is “structurally sound”, is an opinion on the physical condition of the structure at a single point in time. It does not and cannot legally substitute for a CCC. A builder’s assessment of soundness does not rectify the lack of official compliance. Therefore, Anaru’s primary professional obligation, as mandated by the Rules (specifically Rule 10.7 regarding the disclosure of known defects and Rule 9.7 regarding the recommendation of expert advice), is to ensure the prospective purchaser, Chloe, is made explicitly aware of the missing CCC. He must explain that this is a potential defect and advise her to seek independent legal advice to understand the full risks and implications before proceeding with the purchase. Simply relying on the building report or focusing on other procedural matters would fail to address the most critical known issue affecting the property’s legal status.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Assessment of a licensee’s obligations under the REA Code of Conduct (2012) in a situation involving potential methamphetamine contamination requires careful navigation of client instructions and disclosure duties. Anaru is listing a property for his client, Mei. Mei mentions a neighbour’s rumour about the previous tenants’ suspicious behaviour, but she firmly instructs Anaru not to test for methamphetamine or disclose the rumour, fearing it will devalue her property. What is the most appropriate course of action for Anaru to take to fulfil his professional obligations?
Correct
A licensee’s primary obligation is to their client, as outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. However, this duty is not absolute and does not override the licensee’s other fundamental obligations, such as the duty to treat customers fairly and the requirement to disclose known defects. In this scenario, while a rumour is not a confirmed defect, it constitutes a significant red flag and a potential material fact that could influence a purchaser’s decision. Ignoring such information would be a failure of the licensee’s duty to act with skill, care, and competence. The most professional and compliant course of action involves advising the client of the licensee’s legal and ethical obligations. The licensee must inform the vendor that they have a duty to disclose potential risks to purchasers. They should strongly recommend that the vendor commissions a professional screening or detailed test in accordance with the New Zealand Standard NZS 8510:2017 to either substantiate or dismiss the rumour. This standard sets the maximum acceptable level of methamphetamine residue in high-use areas at \(1.5 \, \mu g/100 \, cm^2\). If the vendor refuses to test, the licensee must explain that they may still be obligated to disclose the unsubstantiated risk to potential purchasers. If the vendor insists on non-disclosure of this risk, the licensee may need to decline the agency agreement, as they cannot fulfil their duties without potentially misleading purchasers. All advice and the client’s subsequent instructions must be documented in writing to protect the licensee and the agency.
Incorrect
A licensee’s primary obligation is to their client, as outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. However, this duty is not absolute and does not override the licensee’s other fundamental obligations, such as the duty to treat customers fairly and the requirement to disclose known defects. In this scenario, while a rumour is not a confirmed defect, it constitutes a significant red flag and a potential material fact that could influence a purchaser’s decision. Ignoring such information would be a failure of the licensee’s duty to act with skill, care, and competence. The most professional and compliant course of action involves advising the client of the licensee’s legal and ethical obligations. The licensee must inform the vendor that they have a duty to disclose potential risks to purchasers. They should strongly recommend that the vendor commissions a professional screening or detailed test in accordance with the New Zealand Standard NZS 8510:2017 to either substantiate or dismiss the rumour. This standard sets the maximum acceptable level of methamphetamine residue in high-use areas at \(1.5 \, \mu g/100 \, cm^2\). If the vendor refuses to test, the licensee must explain that they may still be obligated to disclose the unsubstantiated risk to potential purchasers. If the vendor insists on non-disclosure of this risk, the licensee may need to decline the agency agreement, as they cannot fulfil their duties without potentially misleading purchasers. All advice and the client’s subsequent instructions must be documented in writing to protect the licensee and the agency.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Anika is the salesperson for the Chen family’s property. Liam, a potential buyer, submits a written offer that is significantly below the Chens’ asking price. While discussing the offer, Liam privately tells Anika, “Look, I’m pre-approved for much more, so if they counter, I’ll probably come up. I’m just seeing what I can get away with.” The Chens are feeling pressured to sell due to a job relocation and tell Anika they are seriously considering accepting the low offer. According to the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, what is the most appropriate action for Anika to take to fulfill her primary obligations?
Correct
Logical Deduction Process: 1. Identify the primary legal obligation: The salesperson’s primary duty is a fiduciary one to their client, the vendor. This is established under common law and reinforced by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. \[ \text{Primary Obligation} = \text{Fiduciary Duty to Client (Vendor)} \] 2. Assess the information received: The information from the customer (buyer) that they are willing and able to pay more is material information directly impacting the client’s financial outcome. \[ \text{Information} = \text{Material to Client’s Interest} \] 3. Evaluate conflicting duties: The salesperson owes a duty of care and fairness to the customer, but this is subordinate to the fiduciary duty owed to the client. Withholding material information from the client would breach the duty to act in their best interests (Rule 6.1) and the duty to communicate all significant developments (Rule 6.4). \[ \text{Duty}_{Client (Rule 6.1)} \succ \text{Duty of Fairness}_{Customer} \] 4. Determine the correct action: The salesperson must use the material information to benefit their client. This involves communicating the substance of the information to the client to enable an informed decision and advising on a negotiation strategy, such as a counter-offer. \[ \text{Action} = \text{Inform Client of Buyer’s Flexibility} + \text{Advise on Counter-Offer Strategy} \] The core principle governing a real estate salesperson’s conduct in New Zealand is the fiduciary duty owed to their client. This duty, outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and detailed in the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, requires the licensee to act in the absolute best interests of the client they represent. This includes the obligation to achieve the best possible price and terms for the client. In a situation where a customer, or potential buyer, reveals information that is material to the client’s position, the salesperson’s duty is clear. The information about the buyer’s willingness and capacity to increase their offer is a significant development. According to Rule 6.4 of the Code of Conduct, a licensee must communicate regularly with their client and keep them informed of any significant matters relevant to the transaction. Furthermore, Rule 6.1 mandates acting in the client’s best interests. Withholding this information would prevent the client from making a fully informed decision and would be a direct failure of this primary duty. While a licensee must treat all parties fairly, this duty of fairness does not override the paramount fiduciary responsibility to the client. Therefore, the licensee must convey the essence of this new information to their client, empowering them to negotiate from a position of strength. The most professional way to handle this is to advise the client of the buyer’s potential flexibility and recommend a strategic response, such as a counter-offer.
Incorrect
Logical Deduction Process: 1. Identify the primary legal obligation: The salesperson’s primary duty is a fiduciary one to their client, the vendor. This is established under common law and reinforced by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. \[ \text{Primary Obligation} = \text{Fiduciary Duty to Client (Vendor)} \] 2. Assess the information received: The information from the customer (buyer) that they are willing and able to pay more is material information directly impacting the client’s financial outcome. \[ \text{Information} = \text{Material to Client’s Interest} \] 3. Evaluate conflicting duties: The salesperson owes a duty of care and fairness to the customer, but this is subordinate to the fiduciary duty owed to the client. Withholding material information from the client would breach the duty to act in their best interests (Rule 6.1) and the duty to communicate all significant developments (Rule 6.4). \[ \text{Duty}_{Client (Rule 6.1)} \succ \text{Duty of Fairness}_{Customer} \] 4. Determine the correct action: The salesperson must use the material information to benefit their client. This involves communicating the substance of the information to the client to enable an informed decision and advising on a negotiation strategy, such as a counter-offer. \[ \text{Action} = \text{Inform Client of Buyer’s Flexibility} + \text{Advise on Counter-Offer Strategy} \] The core principle governing a real estate salesperson’s conduct in New Zealand is the fiduciary duty owed to their client. This duty, outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and detailed in the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, requires the licensee to act in the absolute best interests of the client they represent. This includes the obligation to achieve the best possible price and terms for the client. In a situation where a customer, or potential buyer, reveals information that is material to the client’s position, the salesperson’s duty is clear. The information about the buyer’s willingness and capacity to increase their offer is a significant development. According to Rule 6.4 of the Code of Conduct, a licensee must communicate regularly with their client and keep them informed of any significant matters relevant to the transaction. Furthermore, Rule 6.1 mandates acting in the client’s best interests. Withholding this information would prevent the client from making a fully informed decision and would be a direct failure of this primary duty. While a licensee must treat all parties fairly, this duty of fairness does not override the paramount fiduciary responsibility to the client. Therefore, the licensee must convey the essence of this new information to their client, empowering them to negotiate from a position of strength. The most professional way to handle this is to advise the client of the buyer’s potential flexibility and recommend a strategic response, such as a counter-offer.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Assessment of a licensee’s conduct in a specific property transaction highlights the conflict between vendor instructions and professional duties. Matiu is the listing agent for a property owned by Anika. While preparing the property for marketing, Matiu observes significant, but old, water staining on the lower part of a wall in the garage, accompanied by a faint damp smell. Anika explains that a downpipe overflowed two years ago, causing the damage, but the issue was resolved by clearing the gutters. She is adamant the area is now dry and instructs Matiu not to raise the issue with potential purchasers to avoid unnecessary concern. When a prospective buyer, Hana, directly asks if there have ever been any water ingress issues with the property, what is the most appropriate course of action for Matiu, consistent with his obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 Code of Conduct?
Correct
A licensee’s professional obligations are governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care. A core principle is the duty of fairness and the requirement to disclose known material defects to a customer. In this scenario, the historical water staining and the vendor’s explanation constitute material information that a reasonable buyer would want to know before making a purchase decision. While the vendor has provided an explanation and instructed the licensee not to disclose it, the licensee’s professional duties to the customer override the client’s instruction in this instance. Rule 10.7 of the Code of Conduct explicitly states that a licensee must not mislead a customer or provide false information, nor conceal any known material defects. The presence of significant staining is a defect, and its history is material. The most appropriate and professional course of action is to be transparent. The licensee must convey the facts they have observed, which are the stains and the smell, and also relay the vendor’s explanation for their cause. This provides the potential buyer with the necessary information to conduct their own due diligence, such as commissioning a comprehensive building report to verify the vendor’s claim that the issue is resolved. This approach protects the licensee from accusations of misconduct, ensures the buyer is not misled, and ultimately protects the vendor from potential future legal action if the problem reoccurs. Simply following the vendor’s instruction would be a direct breach of the Code of Conduct.
Incorrect
A licensee’s professional obligations are governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care. A core principle is the duty of fairness and the requirement to disclose known material defects to a customer. In this scenario, the historical water staining and the vendor’s explanation constitute material information that a reasonable buyer would want to know before making a purchase decision. While the vendor has provided an explanation and instructed the licensee not to disclose it, the licensee’s professional duties to the customer override the client’s instruction in this instance. Rule 10.7 of the Code of Conduct explicitly states that a licensee must not mislead a customer or provide false information, nor conceal any known material defects. The presence of significant staining is a defect, and its history is material. The most appropriate and professional course of action is to be transparent. The licensee must convey the facts they have observed, which are the stains and the smell, and also relay the vendor’s explanation for their cause. This provides the potential buyer with the necessary information to conduct their own due diligence, such as commissioning a comprehensive building report to verify the vendor’s claim that the issue is resolved. This approach protects the licensee from accusations of misconduct, ensures the buyer is not misled, and ultimately protects the vendor from potential future legal action if the problem reoccurs. Simply following the vendor’s instruction would be a direct breach of the Code of Conduct.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
An assessment is required for a unique property. A registered valuer is tasked with determining the market value of a Category 1 historic place, a lighthouse on the Coromandel Peninsula, which has been converted into an exclusive, high-yield, short-term accommodation business. The property generates a consistent and well-documented rental income. There are no sales of other converted lighthouses in New Zealand. Given the specific characteristics of this property, which valuation approach should be given the most weight in the final reconciliation of value, and for what reason?
Correct
The core task is to identify the most reliable valuation method for a unique, income-generating property with no direct comparables. The three main valuation methods are the sales comparison approach, the cost approach, and the income capitalization approach. The sales comparison approach determines value by analyzing recent sales of similar properties. For a converted historic lighthouse, there are no directly comparable sales. Using other luxury coastal properties would require substantial, subjective, and potentially unreliable adjustments, making this approach weak. The cost approach determines value by calculating the cost to replace the structure new, subtracting accumulated depreciation, and adding the value of the land. For a unique, historic structure, estimating the replacement cost is highly speculative. More importantly, accurately quantifying all forms of depreciation—physical deterioration, functional obsolescence (e.g., outdated design for its new purpose), and external obsolescence—is extremely difficult and subjective, diminishing the reliability of this method. The income capitalization approach is used for properties that produce rental income. It converts the property’s net operating income (NOI) into a value estimate. Since the lighthouse operates as a high-yield accommodation business with a documented income stream, its value is intrinsically tied to its economic performance. An investor’s primary concern for such a property is the return it can generate. This method directly measures that economic utility by analyzing income, expenses, and market capitalization rates. Given the property’s specific use as a commercial enterprise and the lack of comparable sales, the income capitalization approach provides the most relevant, supportable, and defensible indication of its market value.
Incorrect
The core task is to identify the most reliable valuation method for a unique, income-generating property with no direct comparables. The three main valuation methods are the sales comparison approach, the cost approach, and the income capitalization approach. The sales comparison approach determines value by analyzing recent sales of similar properties. For a converted historic lighthouse, there are no directly comparable sales. Using other luxury coastal properties would require substantial, subjective, and potentially unreliable adjustments, making this approach weak. The cost approach determines value by calculating the cost to replace the structure new, subtracting accumulated depreciation, and adding the value of the land. For a unique, historic structure, estimating the replacement cost is highly speculative. More importantly, accurately quantifying all forms of depreciation—physical deterioration, functional obsolescence (e.g., outdated design for its new purpose), and external obsolescence—is extremely difficult and subjective, diminishing the reliability of this method. The income capitalization approach is used for properties that produce rental income. It converts the property’s net operating income (NOI) into a value estimate. Since the lighthouse operates as a high-yield accommodation business with a documented income stream, its value is intrinsically tied to its economic performance. An investor’s primary concern for such a property is the return it can generate. This method directly measures that economic utility by analyzing income, expenses, and market capitalization rates. Given the property’s specific use as a commercial enterprise and the lack of comparable sales, the income capitalization approach provides the most relevant, supportable, and defensible indication of its market value.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
An analysis of two neighbouring commercial properties in Tauranga is being conducted. Property One is fully tenanted with a 10-year lease to a government department. Property Two, which generates an identical Net Operating Income, is tenanted by a single private-sector company whose lease expires in six months, and industry rumours suggest the company is facing financial difficulties. From a valuation perspective, what is the most probable effect of Property Two’s tenancy situation on its capitalization rate and resulting value when compared to Property One?
Correct
Let’s assume the Net Operating Income (NOI) for both properties is identical at NZ$400,000 per annum. The stable property, with a secure long-term tenant, might be assessed by the market at a capitalization rate of 5.5%. The valuation would be calculated as: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\text{NOI}}{\text{Capitalization Rate}} = \frac{\$400,000}{0.055} \approx \$7,272,727 \] For the second property, the announcement of a potential tenant departure introduces significant risk regarding future income streams. Investors would perceive this property as a riskier asset compared to its securely-tenanted neighbour. To compensate for this elevated risk, an investor would demand a higher rate of return. This market sentiment translates into a higher capitalization rate. If the market assigns a capitalization rate of 7.0% to account for the risk, the new valuation would be: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\text{NOI}}{\text{Capitalization Rate}} = \frac{\$400,000}{0.070} \approx \$5,714,285 \] This demonstrates that an increase in the capitalization rate leads to a decrease in the property’s capital value. The capitalization rate, or cap rate, is a fundamental tool in commercial property valuation that represents the rate of return on a real estate investment property based on the income that the property is expected to generate. It is not merely a reflection of current income but also encapsulates the market’s perception of the risk associated with receiving that income in the future. There is a direct and crucial relationship between perceived risk and the cap rate. When the perceived risk of an investment increases, such as the potential for vacancy due to a major tenant’s departure, investors will require a higher potential return to compensate for that uncertainty. This market demand for a higher return results in an increase in the property’s capitalization rate. Furthermore, there is an inverse relationship between a property’s capitalization rate and its market value. The valuation formula under the income approach divides the Net Operating Income (NOI) by the capitalization rate. Therefore, if the capitalization rate (the divisor in the equation) increases while the NOI remains constant, the resulting capital value of the property will decrease. This principle is vital for a real estate salesperson to understand when advising clients, as factors beyond the current rent roll, such as tenant stability, lease term, and market confidence, directly impact the cap rate and, consequently, the price a property can achieve in the market.
Incorrect
Let’s assume the Net Operating Income (NOI) for both properties is identical at NZ$400,000 per annum. The stable property, with a secure long-term tenant, might be assessed by the market at a capitalization rate of 5.5%. The valuation would be calculated as: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\text{NOI}}{\text{Capitalization Rate}} = \frac{\$400,000}{0.055} \approx \$7,272,727 \] For the second property, the announcement of a potential tenant departure introduces significant risk regarding future income streams. Investors would perceive this property as a riskier asset compared to its securely-tenanted neighbour. To compensate for this elevated risk, an investor would demand a higher rate of return. This market sentiment translates into a higher capitalization rate. If the market assigns a capitalization rate of 7.0% to account for the risk, the new valuation would be: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\text{NOI}}{\text{Capitalization Rate}} = \frac{\$400,000}{0.070} \approx \$5,714,285 \] This demonstrates that an increase in the capitalization rate leads to a decrease in the property’s capital value. The capitalization rate, or cap rate, is a fundamental tool in commercial property valuation that represents the rate of return on a real estate investment property based on the income that the property is expected to generate. It is not merely a reflection of current income but also encapsulates the market’s perception of the risk associated with receiving that income in the future. There is a direct and crucial relationship between perceived risk and the cap rate. When the perceived risk of an investment increases, such as the potential for vacancy due to a major tenant’s departure, investors will require a higher potential return to compensate for that uncertainty. This market demand for a higher return results in an increase in the property’s capitalization rate. Furthermore, there is an inverse relationship between a property’s capitalization rate and its market value. The valuation formula under the income approach divides the Net Operating Income (NOI) by the capitalization rate. Therefore, if the capitalization rate (the divisor in the equation) increases while the NOI remains constant, the resulting capital value of the property will decrease. This principle is vital for a real estate salesperson to understand when advising clients, as factors beyond the current rent roll, such as tenant stability, lease term, and market confidence, directly impact the cap rate and, consequently, the price a property can achieve in the market.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
An assessment of a property advertisement created by a licensee, Priya, reveals a significant ethical dilemma. The advertisement for a coastal property in the Coromandel prominently features the phrase “permanent, unobstructed ocean vistas.” Priya is fully aware that a resource consent application has been lodged with the local council for a commercial development on the adjacent land. If approved, this development would entirely eliminate the property’s ocean views. The application is a matter of public record but has not yet been decided. Considering the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Code of Conduct, what is the most significant ethical failure demonstrated by Priya’s actions?
Correct
The core issue in this scenario is the licensee’s obligation to treat customers with fairness and to not engage in misleading conduct, as mandated by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules. Specifically, Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to not mislead a customer or client, and Rule 10.2 prohibits advertising that is likely to mislead or deceive consumers. While the statement that the property currently has sea views is factually correct, the advertisement is profoundly misleading by omission. The existence of a resource consent application for a structure that would eliminate this key feature is a material fact. A material fact is any information that a reasonable person would consider important in their decision to buy a property. The licensee, Priya, has knowledge of this material fact. Her duty of fairness to potential purchasers (customers) requires her to disclose this known risk. Hiding behind the technicality that the consent is not yet granted is a breach of her professional obligations. The primary ethical failure is not simply the use of optimistic language, but the deliberate withholding of critical, adverse information that directly contradicts the impression created by the advertisement and would almost certainly influence a buyer’s decision and the price they are willing to pay. This conduct undermines the integrity of the market and the trust that the public places in licensees.
Incorrect
The core issue in this scenario is the licensee’s obligation to treat customers with fairness and to not engage in misleading conduct, as mandated by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules. Specifically, Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to not mislead a customer or client, and Rule 10.2 prohibits advertising that is likely to mislead or deceive consumers. While the statement that the property currently has sea views is factually correct, the advertisement is profoundly misleading by omission. The existence of a resource consent application for a structure that would eliminate this key feature is a material fact. A material fact is any information that a reasonable person would consider important in their decision to buy a property. The licensee, Priya, has knowledge of this material fact. Her duty of fairness to potential purchasers (customers) requires her to disclose this known risk. Hiding behind the technicality that the consent is not yet granted is a breach of her professional obligations. The primary ethical failure is not simply the use of optimistic language, but the deliberate withholding of critical, adverse information that directly contradicts the impression created by the advertisement and would almost certainly influence a buyer’s decision and the price they are willing to pay. This conduct undermines the integrity of the market and the trust that the public places in licensees.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
An assessment of a new listing, a lifestyle property with exceptional views, reveals that an approved high-density housing development on adjacent land will eventually obstruct these views. The information is noted in the property’s LIM report, but no construction has commenced. In formulating the marketing strategy, what is the salesperson’s most appropriate course of action to balance their duties to the vendor and to potential buyers?
Correct
A real estate salesperson has a primary fiduciary duty to their client, the vendor, to act in their best interests, which includes marketing the property effectively to achieve the best possible price. However, this duty is not absolute and is governed by overriding legal and professional obligations. Under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, specifically Rule 6.4, a licensee must deal fairly and in good faith with all parties involved in a transaction. Furthermore, Rule 10.7 explicitly states that a licensee must not mislead customers as to the features or characteristics of a property. The Fair Trading Act 1986 also prohibits misleading and deceptive conduct in trade. In this scenario, the future development and its impact on the views is a material fact. While the views are currently unobstructed, marketing them in a way that implies permanence without disclosing the approved development would be misleading by omission. Therefore, the correct professional approach is to create a marketing plan that highlights the property’s existing, verifiable positive features, such as its architectural merit, current ambiance, and land size. Concurrently, the salesperson has an affirmative obligation to disclose the material information about the future development to any genuinely interested party before they commit to the transaction, such as before an offer is made. Relying solely on the buyer to discover this information through their own due diligence or in the LIM report is insufficient and fails to meet the standard of professional conduct required. The disclosure must be proactive to ensure fairness and transparency.
Incorrect
A real estate salesperson has a primary fiduciary duty to their client, the vendor, to act in their best interests, which includes marketing the property effectively to achieve the best possible price. However, this duty is not absolute and is governed by overriding legal and professional obligations. Under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, specifically Rule 6.4, a licensee must deal fairly and in good faith with all parties involved in a transaction. Furthermore, Rule 10.7 explicitly states that a licensee must not mislead customers as to the features or characteristics of a property. The Fair Trading Act 1986 also prohibits misleading and deceptive conduct in trade. In this scenario, the future development and its impact on the views is a material fact. While the views are currently unobstructed, marketing them in a way that implies permanence without disclosing the approved development would be misleading by omission. Therefore, the correct professional approach is to create a marketing plan that highlights the property’s existing, verifiable positive features, such as its architectural merit, current ambiance, and land size. Concurrently, the salesperson has an affirmative obligation to disclose the material information about the future development to any genuinely interested party before they commit to the transaction, such as before an offer is made. Relying solely on the buyer to discover this information through their own due diligence or in the LIM report is insufficient and fails to meet the standard of professional conduct required. The disclosure must be proactive to ensure fairness and transparency.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) has finished its investigation into a complaint lodged against a salesperson, Kenji. The committee determined that Kenji’s failure to adequately explain the agency agreement’s withdrawal clause to his client constituted a breach of his professional obligations. The CAC concluded this behaviour met the definition of “unsatisfactory conduct” but did not reach the higher threshold of “misconduct.” Based on this specific conclusion, which of the following represents a course of action entirely within the CAC’s direct statutory authority?
Correct
Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, the complaints and disciplinary process is structured with distinct roles for the Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) and the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal (READT). When a complaint is referred to a CAC, it investigates the matter to determine the facts. The CAC has the authority to decide if there is a case to answer. If the committee determines that a licensee’s actions constitute “unsatisfactory conduct,” it has the power to resolve the matter directly. The penalties for unsatisfactory conduct that a CAC can impose are specifically defined and include censuring or reprimanding the licensee, ordering an apology, ordering the licensee to pay a fine of up to $10,000, or requiring the licensee to undergo further training or have their professional practices reviewed. The CAC can also order the reduction or refund of commission. However, if the CAC believes the conduct is serious enough to be considered “misconduct,” it cannot make this finding itself. Instead, its role is to lay a formal charge before the READT. The READT is the body responsible for hearing charges of misconduct and has the authority to impose more severe penalties, such as license suspension or cancellation, and higher fines. Therefore, a CAC’s direct authority is limited to making a finding of unsatisfactory conduct and applying the specific penalties prescribed for that level of offense.
Incorrect
Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, the complaints and disciplinary process is structured with distinct roles for the Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) and the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal (READT). When a complaint is referred to a CAC, it investigates the matter to determine the facts. The CAC has the authority to decide if there is a case to answer. If the committee determines that a licensee’s actions constitute “unsatisfactory conduct,” it has the power to resolve the matter directly. The penalties for unsatisfactory conduct that a CAC can impose are specifically defined and include censuring or reprimanding the licensee, ordering an apology, ordering the licensee to pay a fine of up to $10,000, or requiring the licensee to undergo further training or have their professional practices reviewed. The CAC can also order the reduction or refund of commission. However, if the CAC believes the conduct is serious enough to be considered “misconduct,” it cannot make this finding itself. Instead, its role is to lay a formal charge before the READT. The READT is the body responsible for hearing charges of misconduct and has the authority to impose more severe penalties, such as license suspension or cancellation, and higher fines. Therefore, a CAC’s direct authority is limited to making a finding of unsatisfactory conduct and applying the specific penalties prescribed for that level of offense.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Matiu is the agent for a property owned by Mrs. Gable. During the listing process, Mrs. Gable casually mentions that her late husband, a passionate but unlicensed DIY enthusiast, completely rewired the kitchen about 12 years ago. She has no official documentation or certificates for this work. A prospective buyer has expressed strong interest, but their solicitor has raised a query about the compliance of the kitchen’s electrical systems. What course of action demonstrates Matiu’s highest level of professional responsibility according to New Zealand’s regulatory framework?
Correct
This scenario does not require a mathematical calculation. The solution is derived by applying principles from New Zealand law and professional conduct rules. The core issue is the presence of uncertified electrical work performed by an individual who was not a registered electrician. Under the Electricity (Safety) Regulations 2010, most electrical work, especially significant work like rewiring a kitchen, is classified as prescribed electrical work. This type of work must be carried out by a licensed and registered electrical worker and subsequently certified. The appropriate certification for new work is a Certificate of Compliance (CoC). For older, existing installations where a CoC was never issued, a registered electrician can inspect the work and, if it is safe, issue an Electrical Safety Certificate (ESC). The salesperson, Matiu, has a professional and ethical obligation under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to exercise skill, care, and competence. Rule 10.7 mandates the disclosure of any known defects of the property to a customer. The uncertified DIY wiring is a significant latent defect that poses a potential safety risk and could affect the property’s value and insurability. Therefore, simply disclosing it without verification or suggesting a buyer deals with it post-purchase is insufficient and does not meet the standard of care. The most responsible and professional course of action is to advise the vendor to have the work professionally assessed by a registered electrician. This assessment would determine if the wiring is safe and compliant. The electrician could then perform any necessary remedial work and issue the appropriate certification, likely an ESC. This process addresses the safety concern directly, clarifies the legal status of the wiring, and ensures that full and accurate disclosure can be made to all prospective purchasers, protecting the vendor, the buyer, and the salesperson.
Incorrect
This scenario does not require a mathematical calculation. The solution is derived by applying principles from New Zealand law and professional conduct rules. The core issue is the presence of uncertified electrical work performed by an individual who was not a registered electrician. Under the Electricity (Safety) Regulations 2010, most electrical work, especially significant work like rewiring a kitchen, is classified as prescribed electrical work. This type of work must be carried out by a licensed and registered electrical worker and subsequently certified. The appropriate certification for new work is a Certificate of Compliance (CoC). For older, existing installations where a CoC was never issued, a registered electrician can inspect the work and, if it is safe, issue an Electrical Safety Certificate (ESC). The salesperson, Matiu, has a professional and ethical obligation under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to exercise skill, care, and competence. Rule 10.7 mandates the disclosure of any known defects of the property to a customer. The uncertified DIY wiring is a significant latent defect that poses a potential safety risk and could affect the property’s value and insurability. Therefore, simply disclosing it without verification or suggesting a buyer deals with it post-purchase is insufficient and does not meet the standard of care. The most responsible and professional course of action is to advise the vendor to have the work professionally assessed by a registered electrician. This assessment would determine if the wiring is safe and compliant. The electrician could then perform any necessary remedial work and issue the appropriate certification, likely an ESC. This process addresses the safety concern directly, clarifies the legal status of the wiring, and ensures that full and accurate disclosure can be made to all prospective purchasers, protecting the vendor, the buyer, and the salesperson.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
An assessment of a communication breakdown between Anaru, a real estate salesperson, and his new client, Mrs. Peni, reveals a critical misstep. Mrs. Peni, who is elderly and has expressed significant anxiety about the complexities of selling her home of fifty years, received a lengthy email from Anaru. The email detailed the multi-stage marketing strategy, using industry-specific acronyms and technical jargon related to digital advertising metrics and auction processes. After reading it, Mrs. Peni felt more overwhelmed and distrustful. Which of the following communication approaches would have been most effective for Anaru to adopt initially to align with his professional obligations and ensure client understanding?
Correct
The core principle of effective communication in real estate is adapting the method, style, and content to the specific needs and circumstances of the client. This is a fundamental aspect of a licensee’s professional obligations under the Real Estate Authority (REA) Code of Conduct, which mandates clear and timely communication. In a situation involving a client who may have language barriers or is feeling anxious, relying solely on dense, technical written communication is inadequate. The most effective strategy involves a multi-faceted approach. It should begin with a direct, personal interaction, such as a face-to-face meeting or a video call. This allows the licensee to use simple, plain language, observe the client’s non-verbal cues for understanding, and answer questions in real time. This verbal explanation builds rapport and directly addresses the client’s anxieties. Following this personal interaction, a written summary should be provided. This summary should not be another technical document but a concise confirmation of the key points discussed, using the same plain language. This creates a clear record for the client to refer back to, reinforcing their understanding and documenting the advice given, which is also a key professional practice. This combined approach ensures comprehension, builds trust, and meets the high standards of care required of a licensee.
Incorrect
The core principle of effective communication in real estate is adapting the method, style, and content to the specific needs and circumstances of the client. This is a fundamental aspect of a licensee’s professional obligations under the Real Estate Authority (REA) Code of Conduct, which mandates clear and timely communication. In a situation involving a client who may have language barriers or is feeling anxious, relying solely on dense, technical written communication is inadequate. The most effective strategy involves a multi-faceted approach. It should begin with a direct, personal interaction, such as a face-to-face meeting or a video call. This allows the licensee to use simple, plain language, observe the client’s non-verbal cues for understanding, and answer questions in real time. This verbal explanation builds rapport and directly addresses the client’s anxieties. Following this personal interaction, a written summary should be provided. This summary should not be another technical document but a concise confirmation of the key points discussed, using the same plain language. This creates a clear record for the client to refer back to, reinforcing their understanding and documenting the advice given, which is also a key professional practice. This combined approach ensures comprehension, builds trust, and meets the high standards of care required of a licensee.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Anaru, a real estate salesperson, is showing a property to a prospective buyer, Mei. Mei expresses admiration for the garden but also voices significant concerns about the age of the roof and the potential for costly repairs. Sensing her hesitation and wanting to advance the sale, Anaru employs an ‘alternative close’ technique by asking, “So, would you prefer a settlement date in 30 days, or would 60 days work better for your financing?” Which of the following provides the most accurate assessment of Anaru’s closing strategy under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care?
Correct
\[ (\text{Use of Alternative Close}) + (\text{Buyer’s Expressed Substantive Concerns}) – (\text{Fair Dealing Obligation}) \rightarrow (\text{Potential Breach of Rule 9.2}) \] The professional conduct of a real estate licensee in New Zealand is governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and its associated Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care. While various sales and closing techniques are part of a salesperson’s toolkit, their application must not contravene these rules. The scenario involves an ‘alternative close’, a technique where a salesperson asks a question that assumes the major decision has already been made, offering minor choices instead. In this case, the choice is between settlement dates. However, the buyer has just voiced significant, unresolved concerns about a major aspect of the property, the roof. By ignoring these substantive issues and pushing for a decision on a secondary matter, the salesperson is not engaging with the buyer’s legitimate queries. This action risks being interpreted as applying undue pressure, which is explicitly prohibited under Rule 9.2 of the Code of Conduct. This rule states that a licensee must not engage in any conduct that would place a client or customer under undue or unfair pressure. Furthermore, Rule 6.4 requires licensees to not mislead customers or provide false information. Attempting to bypass a major concern could be seen as a form of misdirection, failing the broader duty to treat customers fairly and with professional respect. A competent licensee should address the buyer’s concerns directly, perhaps by suggesting a building inspection or providing more information, rather than using a closing technique to circumvent them.
Incorrect
\[ (\text{Use of Alternative Close}) + (\text{Buyer’s Expressed Substantive Concerns}) – (\text{Fair Dealing Obligation}) \rightarrow (\text{Potential Breach of Rule 9.2}) \] The professional conduct of a real estate licensee in New Zealand is governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and its associated Code of Professional Conduct and Client Care. While various sales and closing techniques are part of a salesperson’s toolkit, their application must not contravene these rules. The scenario involves an ‘alternative close’, a technique where a salesperson asks a question that assumes the major decision has already been made, offering minor choices instead. In this case, the choice is between settlement dates. However, the buyer has just voiced significant, unresolved concerns about a major aspect of the property, the roof. By ignoring these substantive issues and pushing for a decision on a secondary matter, the salesperson is not engaging with the buyer’s legitimate queries. This action risks being interpreted as applying undue pressure, which is explicitly prohibited under Rule 9.2 of the Code of Conduct. This rule states that a licensee must not engage in any conduct that would place a client or customer under undue or unfair pressure. Furthermore, Rule 6.4 requires licensees to not mislead customers or provide false information. Attempting to bypass a major concern could be seen as a form of misdirection, failing the broader duty to treat customers fairly and with professional respect. A competent licensee should address the buyer’s concerns directly, perhaps by suggesting a building inspection or providing more information, rather than using a closing technique to circumvent them.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A licensee, Hana, is appraising a two-storey property constructed in 1999. In fulfilling her professional obligations, she is assessing the property for any obvious defects that may need to be disclosed. Which of the following combinations of observations presents the most conclusive evidence of a significant weathertightness issue, obligating her to advise the vendor on disclosure and strongly recommend a specialist building survey to any potential purchaser?
Correct
The core issue being tested is the identification of a combination of factors that point towards a high-risk, systemic weathertightness failure, commonly known as “leaky building syndrome” in New Zealand. This issue was prevalent in properties constructed from the late 1980s to the mid-2000s. A licensee’s duty under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 Code of Conduct requires them to recognise and flag potential significant defects. While not expected to be a building surveyor, a licensee must identify warning signs. The strongest indicator of a systemic problem involves a combination of high-risk design features, high-risk materials, and direct evidence of water ingress. In this context, monolithic cladding is a known high-risk material from that era. A cantilevered deck or a balcony situated directly above a habitable room is a classic high-risk design feature, as it creates complex junctions and potential water entry points directly above living spaces. The most critical piece of evidence is visible water staining or damage on an interior surface, such as a ceiling, located directly beneath that high-risk design feature. This combination moves beyond speculation about potential risk and provides direct evidence that the building’s envelope has been compromised and water is actively entering the structure, which is a significant defect requiring disclosure and specialist investigation. Other signs like mustiness or general deferred maintenance are concerning but do not provide the same direct link between a specific design flaw and resulting water damage.
Incorrect
The core issue being tested is the identification of a combination of factors that point towards a high-risk, systemic weathertightness failure, commonly known as “leaky building syndrome” in New Zealand. This issue was prevalent in properties constructed from the late 1980s to the mid-2000s. A licensee’s duty under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 Code of Conduct requires them to recognise and flag potential significant defects. While not expected to be a building surveyor, a licensee must identify warning signs. The strongest indicator of a systemic problem involves a combination of high-risk design features, high-risk materials, and direct evidence of water ingress. In this context, monolithic cladding is a known high-risk material from that era. A cantilevered deck or a balcony situated directly above a habitable room is a classic high-risk design feature, as it creates complex junctions and potential water entry points directly above living spaces. The most critical piece of evidence is visible water staining or damage on an interior surface, such as a ceiling, located directly beneath that high-risk design feature. This combination moves beyond speculation about potential risk and provides direct evidence that the building’s envelope has been compromised and water is actively entering the structure, which is a significant defect requiring disclosure and specialist investigation. Other signs like mustiness or general deferred maintenance are concerning but do not provide the same direct link between a specific design flaw and resulting water damage.