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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A real estate licensee is advising a developer, Aroha Developments, on the acquisition of a parcel of land for a high-density residential complex. The site is zoned for such development and is adjacent to a small, protected wetland identified in the District Plan as a ‘Significant Natural Area’ (SNA) due to its role as a breeding ground for the endemic fernbird (mātātā). The developer’s preliminary Assessment of Environmental Effects (AEE) focuses heavily on the positive contributions to housing supply and proposes standard erosion control measures. Considering the hierarchy of environmental considerations under the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA), which of the following represents the most significant potential obstacle to gaining resource consent?
Correct
The core of this issue lies within the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA), which is the primary legislation governing property development and environmental effects in New Zealand. The purpose of the RMA, as stated in Part 2, Section 5, is to promote the sustainable management of natural and physical resources. This involves managing the use, development, and protection of resources in a way that enables people to provide for their social, economic, and cultural well-being while sustaining the potential of resources for future generations, and avoiding, remedying, or mitigating any adverse effects of activities on the environment. In the given scenario, the proposed development presents a conflict between two objectives. While it supports urban densification, which is encouraged by national policy, it also poses a significant potential adverse effect on a sensitive ecological environment. Section 6 of the RMA outlines Matters of National Importance that all persons exercising functions and powers under the Act must recognise and provide for. This includes Section 6(c): “the protection of areas of significant indigenous vegetation and significant habitats of indigenous fauna.” The stream, being a known habitat for native longfin eels (a taonga species), clearly falls under this provision. An Assessment of Environmental Effects (AEE) must be comprehensive and address all potential effects, particularly those of national importance. A generic or inadequate mitigation plan for such a significant habitat is a major deficiency. The council’s assessment will weigh the positive effects (housing) against the adverse effects. A failure to robustly address a Section 6 matter is a substantial legal and procedural risk, often leading to requests for further information, public notification, and potentially the decline of the resource consent application. Therefore, the most critical weakness in the application is not the traffic or the project’s alignment with urban policy, but its insufficient handling of a protected ecological habitat.
Incorrect
The core of this issue lies within the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA), which is the primary legislation governing property development and environmental effects in New Zealand. The purpose of the RMA, as stated in Part 2, Section 5, is to promote the sustainable management of natural and physical resources. This involves managing the use, development, and protection of resources in a way that enables people to provide for their social, economic, and cultural well-being while sustaining the potential of resources for future generations, and avoiding, remedying, or mitigating any adverse effects of activities on the environment. In the given scenario, the proposed development presents a conflict between two objectives. While it supports urban densification, which is encouraged by national policy, it also poses a significant potential adverse effect on a sensitive ecological environment. Section 6 of the RMA outlines Matters of National Importance that all persons exercising functions and powers under the Act must recognise and provide for. This includes Section 6(c): “the protection of areas of significant indigenous vegetation and significant habitats of indigenous fauna.” The stream, being a known habitat for native longfin eels (a taonga species), clearly falls under this provision. An Assessment of Environmental Effects (AEE) must be comprehensive and address all potential effects, particularly those of national importance. A generic or inadequate mitigation plan for such a significant habitat is a major deficiency. The council’s assessment will weigh the positive effects (housing) against the adverse effects. A failure to robustly address a Section 6 matter is a substantial legal and procedural risk, often leading to requests for further information, public notification, and potentially the decline of the resource consent application. Therefore, the most critical weakness in the application is not the traffic or the project’s alignment with urban policy, but its insufficient handling of a protected ecological habitat.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
An assessment of a complaint lodged with the Real Estate Authority reveals the following situation: A licensee, Hemi, was marketing a property scheduled for auction. A prospective buyer, Anika, registered her interest and specifically requested to be notified if any pre-auction offers were made. Hemi received a pre-auction offer which the vendor subsequently accepted. However, Hemi neglected to inform Anika before the agreement became unconditional. Anika’s complaint states this failure denied her the opportunity to participate. After investigating the facts, which of the following describes the most likely determination and procedural step taken by the Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC)?
Correct
The logical determination of the outcome begins with identifying the specific breach of conduct. The licensee, Hemi, failed to inform a registered party of a pre-auction offer, which contravenes the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 10.7 mandates that if a vendor agrees, all other prospective purchasers who have expressed interest must be informed of a pre-auction offer. This failure represents a departure from the expected professional standard. The next step is to classify the severity of this breach. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 distinguishes between unsatisfactory conduct and misconduct. Unsatisfactory conduct, as defined in section 72, is conduct that falls short of the standard a reasonable member of the public is entitled to expect, including negligent or incompetent conduct. Misconduct, under section 73, is more serious and includes disgraceful conduct or a wilful or reckless contravention of the rules. While the complainant alleges intent, Hemi’s failure is most directly evidenced as a procedural error or negligence. Without clear proof of wilful intent to deceive, it aligns more closely with the definition of unsatisfactory conduct. Finally, the procedural pathway must be considered. A Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) is responsible for the initial investigation. The CAC has the authority to make a finding of unsatisfactory conduct and impose penalties itself, such as fines up to $10,000, censure, or ordering further education. If the CAC believed the conduct was serious enough to constitute misconduct, its role would be to lay a formal charge before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal. Given that the evidence points towards unsatisfactory conduct rather than the higher threshold of misconduct, the most probable course of action is for the CAC to exercise its own determinative powers.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the outcome begins with identifying the specific breach of conduct. The licensee, Hemi, failed to inform a registered party of a pre-auction offer, which contravenes the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 10.7 mandates that if a vendor agrees, all other prospective purchasers who have expressed interest must be informed of a pre-auction offer. This failure represents a departure from the expected professional standard. The next step is to classify the severity of this breach. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 distinguishes between unsatisfactory conduct and misconduct. Unsatisfactory conduct, as defined in section 72, is conduct that falls short of the standard a reasonable member of the public is entitled to expect, including negligent or incompetent conduct. Misconduct, under section 73, is more serious and includes disgraceful conduct or a wilful or reckless contravention of the rules. While the complainant alleges intent, Hemi’s failure is most directly evidenced as a procedural error or negligence. Without clear proof of wilful intent to deceive, it aligns more closely with the definition of unsatisfactory conduct. Finally, the procedural pathway must be considered. A Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) is responsible for the initial investigation. The CAC has the authority to make a finding of unsatisfactory conduct and impose penalties itself, such as fines up to $10,000, censure, or ordering further education. If the CAC believed the conduct was serious enough to constitute misconduct, its role would be to lay a formal charge before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal. Given that the evidence points towards unsatisfactory conduct rather than the higher threshold of misconduct, the most probable course of action is for the CAC to exercise its own determinative powers.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
An assessment of a proposed marketing strategy reveals a conflict between a vendor’s instructions and a licensee’s professional obligations. Licensee Kenji is preparing a marketing plan for Mrs. Gable’s property, which features a well-constructed but unconsented studio in the garden. Mrs. Gable, concerned about her limited marketing budget and wanting to avoid the cost of a Certificate of Acceptance, insists that all marketing materials describe the studio as a “potential fourth bedroom/teenager’s retreat” to maximise buyer interest. What is the most professionally responsible way for Kenji to finalise the marketing plan?
Correct
The correct course of action is determined by a logical deduction based on professional and legal obligations. 1. Identify the central conflict: The vendor’s instruction to market an unconsented structure as a “potential bedroom” conflicts with the licensee’s legal duty not to mislead. 2. Reference primary legislation: The Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 and the Fair Trading Act 1986 are paramount. 3. Apply Rule 6.2 of the Code of Conduct: This rule prohibits licensees from misleading customers or providing false information. Describing an unconsented building as a “potential bedroom” is misleading because it implies a lawful habitable status that the structure does not possess. 4. Apply Rule 9.2 of the Code of Conduct: This rule requires a licensee to act in the best interests of their client. Allowing a client to proceed with a misleading marketing claim exposes them to future legal action from a purchaser, which is not in their best long-term interest. The licensee’s duty includes providing sound advice to mitigate such risks. 5. Synthesise the correct approach: The licensee must refuse to implement the vendor’s specific wording. They must clearly explain the legal risks associated with misrepresentation under both the Code of Conduct and the Fair Trading Act. The marketing plan must be amended to describe the structure factually, for instance, as an “unconsented garden studio” or “external utility room,” and clearly disclose its lack of council consent. This ensures transparency, protects all parties from legal liability, and upholds the integrity of the profession. A licensee’s primary responsibility in developing a marketing plan is to ensure all representations are accurate and not misleading. This obligation is enshrined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, specifically Rule 6.2, and is reinforced by the Fair Trading Act 1986, which prohibits deceptive conduct in trade. In this scenario, describing an unconsented structure as a “potential bedroom” or “teenager’s retreat” creates a misleading impression about its legal use and compliance with the Building Act. While a licensee has a duty to act in the best interests of their client under Rule 9.2, this does not extend to carrying out unlawful instructions. In fact, acting in the client’s best interest involves protecting them from potential legal challenges and financial penalties that could arise from a purchaser discovering the misrepresentation post-sale. The correct professional approach is to educate the vendor on the legal ramifications and refuse to use misleading terminology. The marketing plan must describe the structure factually and disclose its unconsented status. This ensures that prospective buyers are fully informed, mitigating risk for the vendor and upholding the licensee’s ethical and legal duties.
Incorrect
The correct course of action is determined by a logical deduction based on professional and legal obligations. 1. Identify the central conflict: The vendor’s instruction to market an unconsented structure as a “potential bedroom” conflicts with the licensee’s legal duty not to mislead. 2. Reference primary legislation: The Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 and the Fair Trading Act 1986 are paramount. 3. Apply Rule 6.2 of the Code of Conduct: This rule prohibits licensees from misleading customers or providing false information. Describing an unconsented building as a “potential bedroom” is misleading because it implies a lawful habitable status that the structure does not possess. 4. Apply Rule 9.2 of the Code of Conduct: This rule requires a licensee to act in the best interests of their client. Allowing a client to proceed with a misleading marketing claim exposes them to future legal action from a purchaser, which is not in their best long-term interest. The licensee’s duty includes providing sound advice to mitigate such risks. 5. Synthesise the correct approach: The licensee must refuse to implement the vendor’s specific wording. They must clearly explain the legal risks associated with misrepresentation under both the Code of Conduct and the Fair Trading Act. The marketing plan must be amended to describe the structure factually, for instance, as an “unconsented garden studio” or “external utility room,” and clearly disclose its lack of council consent. This ensures transparency, protects all parties from legal liability, and upholds the integrity of the profession. A licensee’s primary responsibility in developing a marketing plan is to ensure all representations are accurate and not misleading. This obligation is enshrined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, specifically Rule 6.2, and is reinforced by the Fair Trading Act 1986, which prohibits deceptive conduct in trade. In this scenario, describing an unconsented structure as a “potential bedroom” or “teenager’s retreat” creates a misleading impression about its legal use and compliance with the Building Act. While a licensee has a duty to act in the best interests of their client under Rule 9.2, this does not extend to carrying out unlawful instructions. In fact, acting in the client’s best interest involves protecting them from potential legal challenges and financial penalties that could arise from a purchaser discovering the misrepresentation post-sale. The correct professional approach is to educate the vendor on the legal ramifications and refuse to use misleading terminology. The marketing plan must describe the structure factually and disclose its unconsented status. This ensures that prospective buyers are fully informed, mitigating risk for the vendor and upholding the licensee’s ethical and legal duties.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
The social media marketing campaign for a suburban villa, managed by licensee Kenji, attracts a public comment on a video tour post. The comment, from a member of the public, reads: “Be careful, I’ve heard from neighbours this whole street has major subsidence problems.” Kenji has no prior knowledge of any subsidence issues, and nothing was disclosed by the vendor. To best align with his obligations under the REA Code of Conduct, what is Kenji’s most appropriate initial action?
Correct
The core of this issue rests on balancing a licensee’s duties under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. A licensee has a primary duty to their client, the vendor, which includes marketing the property effectively. However, this is balanced by an overriding duty of fairness, honesty, and care towards customers, which includes not misleading them or withholding material information. When an unverified but potentially serious claim about a property defect is made publicly, such as on social media, several rules come into play. Rule 10.2 prohibits conduct that is misleading or deceptive. Rule 10.7 prohibits withholding known material information. Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to not mislead a customer or provide false information. Simply deleting the comment could be interpreted as hiding a potential defect, which would be a breach if the issue is later substantiated. Publicly refuting the claim without investigation is also a breach, as the licensee would be making a definitive statement without a factual basis, potentially misleading customers. Ignoring the comment is a failure of professional diligence and the duty of care. The most appropriate and compliant course of action is a two-step process. First, manage the public communication professionally by acknowledging the comment without validating the claim, and moving the conversation to a private channel. This demonstrates transparency and responsiveness. Second, and crucially, the licensee must then exercise due diligence by immediately raising the issue with the vendor to investigate the claim’s validity. This action respects the duty to the vendor by not publicly validating a rumour, while simultaneously fulfilling the duty to customers by taking a potential defect seriously and seeking to verify the facts.
Incorrect
The core of this issue rests on balancing a licensee’s duties under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. A licensee has a primary duty to their client, the vendor, which includes marketing the property effectively. However, this is balanced by an overriding duty of fairness, honesty, and care towards customers, which includes not misleading them or withholding material information. When an unverified but potentially serious claim about a property defect is made publicly, such as on social media, several rules come into play. Rule 10.2 prohibits conduct that is misleading or deceptive. Rule 10.7 prohibits withholding known material information. Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to not mislead a customer or provide false information. Simply deleting the comment could be interpreted as hiding a potential defect, which would be a breach if the issue is later substantiated. Publicly refuting the claim without investigation is also a breach, as the licensee would be making a definitive statement without a factual basis, potentially misleading customers. Ignoring the comment is a failure of professional diligence and the duty of care. The most appropriate and compliant course of action is a two-step process. First, manage the public communication professionally by acknowledging the comment without validating the claim, and moving the conversation to a private channel. This demonstrates transparency and responsiveness. Second, and crucially, the licensee must then exercise due diligence by immediately raising the issue with the vendor to investigate the claim’s validity. This action respects the duty to the vendor by not publicly validating a rumour, while simultaneously fulfilling the duty to customers by taking a potential defect seriously and seeking to verify the facts.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
An assessment of a unique, heritage-listed commercial building in central Wellington reveals a complex valuation situation. A registered valuer provides a current market valuation based on comparable sales and prevailing market conditions. A potential buyer, a multinational corporation, conducts its own detailed financial analysis. This analysis results in a significantly different valuation figure because the corporation has secured special consents for alterations and intends to use the building as its high-profile flagship headquarters, a use that offers unique branding and operational advantages specific to them. How should the corporation’s valuation be most accurately categorised within valuation principles?
Correct
The core of this scenario lies in distinguishing between three key valuation principles: market value, fair value, and intrinsic value. Market value is defined as the estimated price a property would fetch on the open market in an arm’s length transaction between a willing buyer and a willing seller, both acting knowledgeably and without compulsion. The registered valuer’s appraisal provides this figure, reflecting the general market’s perception of the property’s worth, including any limitations like its heritage status. Intrinsic value, in contrast, is a subjective measure based on the unique advantages or utility a specific property holds for a particular individual or entity. In this case, the multinational corporation has specific plans and permissions that allow it to unlock a unique potential from the property, using it as a flagship headquarters. Their internal valuation is based on this specific strategic use and the benefits that only they can derive. This personalised calculation, which is likely higher than the general market value, is a clear example of intrinsic value. Fair value is a broader concept, often used in financial reporting, representing the price received to sell an asset in an orderly transaction between market participants. While it can be the same as market value, it is not defined by a specific user’s unique circumstances but by the perspective of general market participants. The corporation’s assessment is not based on general market participants but on its own specific, internal business case, making intrinsic value the most accurate descriptor for its valuation.
Incorrect
The core of this scenario lies in distinguishing between three key valuation principles: market value, fair value, and intrinsic value. Market value is defined as the estimated price a property would fetch on the open market in an arm’s length transaction between a willing buyer and a willing seller, both acting knowledgeably and without compulsion. The registered valuer’s appraisal provides this figure, reflecting the general market’s perception of the property’s worth, including any limitations like its heritage status. Intrinsic value, in contrast, is a subjective measure based on the unique advantages or utility a specific property holds for a particular individual or entity. In this case, the multinational corporation has specific plans and permissions that allow it to unlock a unique potential from the property, using it as a flagship headquarters. Their internal valuation is based on this specific strategic use and the benefits that only they can derive. This personalised calculation, which is likely higher than the general market value, is a clear example of intrinsic value. Fair value is a broader concept, often used in financial reporting, representing the price received to sell an asset in an orderly transaction between market participants. While it can be the same as market value, it is not defined by a specific user’s unique circumstances but by the perspective of general market participants. The corporation’s assessment is not based on general market participants but on its own specific, internal business case, making intrinsic value the most accurate descriptor for its valuation.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
An evaluative assessment of a licensee’s conduct is required in the following situation: Anika, a licensee, holds a sole agency agreement to sell Matiu’s residential property. During an open home, a prospective purchaser, Chloe, who is unrepresented by any agent, expresses a very strong desire to buy the property. Chloe asks Anika directly, “I need to know how to structure my offer to make it successful without paying too much. What price and conditions do you advise I include?” According to the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and its associated professional conduct rules, what is the paramount duty that must govern Anika’s response to Chloe’s request?
Correct
The logical deduction to determine the correct answer is as follows. First, identify the legal relationships between the parties. Anika is the agent, and Matiu is the client, as established by the sole agency agreement. This creates a fiduciary relationship where Anika owes Matiu duties of loyalty, confidentiality, and acting in his best interests. Chloe is a customer, a third party to the agency relationship. Second, analyze the nature of Chloe’s request. She is asking for strategic advice on how to structure her offer, which is essentially asking the agent to help her negotiate against the agent’s own client. Third, apply the hierarchy of duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. An agent’s fiduciary duties to their client are paramount and override their duties of fairness to a customer. Providing strategic advice to a purchaser would directly breach the agent’s undivided loyalty to the vendor, as it would compromise the vendor’s negotiating position. Therefore, the primary principle guiding Anika’s conduct must be the preservation of her fiduciary obligation to her client, Matiu. In the New Zealand real estate framework, the distinction between a client and a customer is fundamental. A client is an individual who has formally engaged a licensee by signing an agency agreement, creating a relationship with specific fiduciary duties. These duties, which are the highest standard of care recognised by law, include undivided loyalty, obedience to lawful instructions, maintaining confidentiality, and acting in the client’s best interests at all times. Conversely, a customer is a third party in the transaction who has not engaged the licensee. While a licensee does not owe fiduciary duties to a customer, they are bound by the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 to treat customers with fairness and honesty, and to not engage in misleading or deceptive conduct. In the presented scenario, Anika’s paramount obligation is to her client, Matiu. Providing strategic advice to Chloe, the customer, on her offer price and terms would constitute a direct conflict of interest and a breach of the duty of loyalty owed to Matiu. This action would undermine the agent’s primary goal of achieving the best possible outcome for the client. The correct professional conduct is to politely decline to give such advice and recommend that the customer seek independent legal or valuation advice.
Incorrect
The logical deduction to determine the correct answer is as follows. First, identify the legal relationships between the parties. Anika is the agent, and Matiu is the client, as established by the sole agency agreement. This creates a fiduciary relationship where Anika owes Matiu duties of loyalty, confidentiality, and acting in his best interests. Chloe is a customer, a third party to the agency relationship. Second, analyze the nature of Chloe’s request. She is asking for strategic advice on how to structure her offer, which is essentially asking the agent to help her negotiate against the agent’s own client. Third, apply the hierarchy of duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. An agent’s fiduciary duties to their client are paramount and override their duties of fairness to a customer. Providing strategic advice to a purchaser would directly breach the agent’s undivided loyalty to the vendor, as it would compromise the vendor’s negotiating position. Therefore, the primary principle guiding Anika’s conduct must be the preservation of her fiduciary obligation to her client, Matiu. In the New Zealand real estate framework, the distinction between a client and a customer is fundamental. A client is an individual who has formally engaged a licensee by signing an agency agreement, creating a relationship with specific fiduciary duties. These duties, which are the highest standard of care recognised by law, include undivided loyalty, obedience to lawful instructions, maintaining confidentiality, and acting in the client’s best interests at all times. Conversely, a customer is a third party in the transaction who has not engaged the licensee. While a licensee does not owe fiduciary duties to a customer, they are bound by the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 to treat customers with fairness and honesty, and to not engage in misleading or deceptive conduct. In the presented scenario, Anika’s paramount obligation is to her client, Matiu. Providing strategic advice to Chloe, the customer, on her offer price and terms would constitute a direct conflict of interest and a breach of the duty of loyalty owed to Matiu. This action would undermine the agent’s primary goal of achieving the best possible outcome for the client. The correct professional conduct is to politely decline to give such advice and recommend that the customer seek independent legal or valuation advice.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
An assessment of a licensee’s marketing strategy for a vacant residential property reveals the use of sophisticated virtual staging software. The licensee, Mei, has digitally added furniture to the empty rooms and has also digitally removed a large, noticeable water stain from the carpet in the main bedroom in all marketing photographs. A disclaimer in small font at the bottom of the online listing reads, “Some images have been virtually staged for marketing purposes.” Which statement most accurately evaluates the compliance of Mei’s actions under the REA Code of Conduct 2012?
Correct
The fundamental issue in this scenario relates to a licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 10.7 states that a licensee must not engage in any conduct that is misleading or deceptive or is likely to mislead or deceive. Furthermore, Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to disclose any known defects of a property to a customer. While using technology like virtual staging to add furniture to an empty room is a generally accepted marketing practice, it must be clearly disclosed as such to avoid misleading buyers. However, there is a critical distinction between enhancement (adding virtual items) and misrepresentation (altering the physical reality of the property). Digitally removing a physical defect, such as a noticeable carpet stain, crosses this line. It is an active concealment of the property’s true condition. A general disclaimer about “virtual staging” does not absolve the licensee of the responsibility for this misrepresentation, as a reasonable person would interpret “staging” as adding furniture, not removing existing flaws. This action is a direct misrepresentation intended to make the property appear in better condition than it actually is, which is a clear breach of professional standards and the duty of honesty owed to all parties in a transaction.
Incorrect
The fundamental issue in this scenario relates to a licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 10.7 states that a licensee must not engage in any conduct that is misleading or deceptive or is likely to mislead or deceive. Furthermore, Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to disclose any known defects of a property to a customer. While using technology like virtual staging to add furniture to an empty room is a generally accepted marketing practice, it must be clearly disclosed as such to avoid misleading buyers. However, there is a critical distinction between enhancement (adding virtual items) and misrepresentation (altering the physical reality of the property). Digitally removing a physical defect, such as a noticeable carpet stain, crosses this line. It is an active concealment of the property’s true condition. A general disclaimer about “virtual staging” does not absolve the licensee of the responsibility for this misrepresentation, as a reasonable person would interpret “staging” as adding furniture, not removing existing flaws. This action is a direct misrepresentation intended to make the property appear in better condition than it actually is, which is a clear breach of professional standards and the duty of honesty owed to all parties in a transaction.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
An assessment of a real estate agency’s client acquisition strategy reveals a particular practice. The agency principal directs the office manager to compile a list of all individuals who received a property appraisal from the agency more than two years ago but did not proceed to list their property for sale. This list, containing names, addresses, and phone numbers, is then provided to an independent telemarketing contractor hired by the agency to cold-call these past appraisal recipients to solicit new listings. According to the principles of the Privacy Act 2020, which statement most accurately evaluates this business practice?
Correct
This scenario involves the use and disclosure of personal information for a purpose different from the one for which it was originally collected. Under the Privacy Act 2020, this is governed by the Information Privacy Principles, specifically IPP 10 (Limits on use of personal information) and IPP 11 (Limits on disclosure of personal information). The personal contact information was initially collected for the specific and lawful purpose of providing a property appraisal. Using this same information years later for a direct marketing campaign constitutes a secondary purpose. IPP 10 prohibits an agency from using information for a purpose other than the one it was collected for, unless the agency believes on reasonable grounds that the individual concerned has authorised the new use. Similarly, IPP 11 restricts the disclosure of personal information to third parties. Providing the list to an external telemarketing company is a disclosure. For this to be compliant, the agency would have needed to obtain consent from the individuals at the time of collection for their information to be used for future marketing purposes or to be disclosed to third-party marketing firms. Without this authorisation, the agency’s actions represent a breach of its obligations under the Privacy Act. The responsibility for the initial breach lies with the agency that collected and then misused and disclosed the data, not solely with the third party acting on its instructions.
Incorrect
This scenario involves the use and disclosure of personal information for a purpose different from the one for which it was originally collected. Under the Privacy Act 2020, this is governed by the Information Privacy Principles, specifically IPP 10 (Limits on use of personal information) and IPP 11 (Limits on disclosure of personal information). The personal contact information was initially collected for the specific and lawful purpose of providing a property appraisal. Using this same information years later for a direct marketing campaign constitutes a secondary purpose. IPP 10 prohibits an agency from using information for a purpose other than the one it was collected for, unless the agency believes on reasonable grounds that the individual concerned has authorised the new use. Similarly, IPP 11 restricts the disclosure of personal information to third parties. Providing the list to an external telemarketing company is a disclosure. For this to be compliant, the agency would have needed to obtain consent from the individuals at the time of collection for their information to be used for future marketing purposes or to be disclosed to third-party marketing firms. Without this authorisation, the agency’s actions represent a breach of its obligations under the Privacy Act. The responsibility for the initial breach lies with the agency that collected and then misused and disclosed the data, not solely with the third party acting on its instructions.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Anika owns a unit in the “Harbour Terrace” unit title development. The Body Corporate’s Long-Term Maintenance Plan (LTMP) has not been reviewed in five years and is widely considered inadequate. Recently, a structural engineer’s report, discussed at a Body Corporate Committee meeting, identified a critical need for partial re-cladding, a cost not covered by the LTMP or existing funds. The committee is actively discussing the necessity of a substantial special levy to fund the works, though no formal resolution has been passed at an Annual or Extraordinary General Meeting. Anika engages Ken, a real estate licensee, to sell her unit. Considering Ken’s obligations under both the Unit Titles Act 2010 and the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, what is the most appropriate action regarding this information?
Correct
The logical determination of the correct course of action proceeds as follows. First, identify the nature of the information. The discussions by the Body Corporate Committee about a major, unbudgeted repair and a consequent large special levy represent a material fact that could significantly impact a purchaser’s decision and future financial liability. Second, consider the disclosure framework under the Unit Titles Act 2010. Section 146 of the Act mandates the provision of a Pre-Contract Disclosure Statement (PCDS) to a prospective purchaser. This statement requires the vendor to disclose specific information, including details about levies, and crucially, any known circumstances not covered in the operational rules that may result in a future levy. The committee’s active consideration of a substantial levy for re-cladding falls directly into this category. Third, evaluate the licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Rule 10.7 requires a licensee to disclose any known defects in the property or title to the customer. A pending, large special levy for essential repairs is a defect in the title in a broader sense, as it affects the financial health and obligations associated with the unit. Furthermore, Rule 6.4 prohibits licensees from misleading customers or withholding information that should, by law or fairness, be provided. Relying on the fact that a formal resolution has not yet been passed would be misleading by omission. Therefore, the licensee’s primary duty is to ensure full and frank disclosure of all known information regarding the potential repair and levy to any prospective purchaser, as it is a known material fact and a latent defect affecting the property’s value and future cost of ownership.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the correct course of action proceeds as follows. First, identify the nature of the information. The discussions by the Body Corporate Committee about a major, unbudgeted repair and a consequent large special levy represent a material fact that could significantly impact a purchaser’s decision and future financial liability. Second, consider the disclosure framework under the Unit Titles Act 2010. Section 146 of the Act mandates the provision of a Pre-Contract Disclosure Statement (PCDS) to a prospective purchaser. This statement requires the vendor to disclose specific information, including details about levies, and crucially, any known circumstances not covered in the operational rules that may result in a future levy. The committee’s active consideration of a substantial levy for re-cladding falls directly into this category. Third, evaluate the licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Rule 10.7 requires a licensee to disclose any known defects in the property or title to the customer. A pending, large special levy for essential repairs is a defect in the title in a broader sense, as it affects the financial health and obligations associated with the unit. Furthermore, Rule 6.4 prohibits licensees from misleading customers or withholding information that should, by law or fairness, be provided. Relying on the fact that a formal resolution has not yet been passed would be misleading by omission. Therefore, the licensee’s primary duty is to ensure full and frank disclosure of all known information regarding the potential repair and levy to any prospective purchaser, as it is a known material fact and a latent defect affecting the property’s value and future cost of ownership.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
An experienced licensee, Kenji, is tasked with creating a discounted cash flow (DCF) projection for a multi-tenanted Class B office building in Christchurch for a cautious overseas investor. Current economic forecasts for New Zealand predict a significant economic slowdown with rising unemployment over the next 24 months. In this specific economic climate, which component of the future income and expense projection demands the most rigorous and conservative adjustment to ensure the valuation realistically reflects the heightened market risk?
Correct
To demonstrate the sensitivity of the vacancy and credit loss assumption, consider a hypothetical commercial property with a Potential Gross Income (PGI) of $800,000 per annum. Base Case (Stable Economy): Vacancy and Credit Loss Allowance: 4% PGI: $800,000 Vacancy Loss: \( \$800,000 \times 0.04 = \$32,000 \) Effective Gross Income (EGI): \( \$800,000 – \$32,000 = \$768,000 \) Downturn Scenario (Conservative Adjustment): The vacancy and credit loss allowance is increased to 9% to reflect higher tenant default risk and longer letting-up periods. PGI: $800,000 Vacancy Loss: \( \$800,000 \times 0.09 = \$72,000 \) Effective Gross Income (EGI): \( \$800,000 – \$72,000 = \$728,000 \) The adjustment results in a $40,000 reduction in the EGI for each year of the projection period. This substantial decrease in projected income directly reduces the Net Operating Income (NOI) and, when discounted back to present value, will have a significantly greater negative impact on the final valuation than more predictable adjustments to operating expenses or deferrable capital costs. A discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis is a valuation method used to estimate the value of an investment based on its expected future cash flows. For commercial property in New Zealand, this involves projecting all income and expenditure over a holding period, typically 5-10 years. Key inputs include potential gross income, vacancy allowances, operating expenses (like rates, insurance, and management fees), and capital expenditures. The resulting net operating income for each year is then discounted to a present value using an appropriate discount rate that reflects the investment’s risk. In an economic downturn, the most immediate and significant risk to a property’s cash flow is the loss of income from tenants. This can occur through tenants vacating at lease expiry without immediate replacement or through tenant default and bankruptcy. Therefore, the assumption for vacancy and credit loss becomes the most critical variable to adjust. While operating expenses like council rates may rise, and capital projects are a consideration, the potential for a sudden and substantial drop in rental income due to tenant instability poses the greatest threat to the investment’s performance and must be modelled with the utmost conservatism. This adjustment is crucial for providing a realistic valuation that aligns with the heightened risks under the Property Law Act 2007 concerning commercial lease defaults.
Incorrect
To demonstrate the sensitivity of the vacancy and credit loss assumption, consider a hypothetical commercial property with a Potential Gross Income (PGI) of $800,000 per annum. Base Case (Stable Economy): Vacancy and Credit Loss Allowance: 4% PGI: $800,000 Vacancy Loss: \( \$800,000 \times 0.04 = \$32,000 \) Effective Gross Income (EGI): \( \$800,000 – \$32,000 = \$768,000 \) Downturn Scenario (Conservative Adjustment): The vacancy and credit loss allowance is increased to 9% to reflect higher tenant default risk and longer letting-up periods. PGI: $800,000 Vacancy Loss: \( \$800,000 \times 0.09 = \$72,000 \) Effective Gross Income (EGI): \( \$800,000 – \$72,000 = \$728,000 \) The adjustment results in a $40,000 reduction in the EGI for each year of the projection period. This substantial decrease in projected income directly reduces the Net Operating Income (NOI) and, when discounted back to present value, will have a significantly greater negative impact on the final valuation than more predictable adjustments to operating expenses or deferrable capital costs. A discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis is a valuation method used to estimate the value of an investment based on its expected future cash flows. For commercial property in New Zealand, this involves projecting all income and expenditure over a holding period, typically 5-10 years. Key inputs include potential gross income, vacancy allowances, operating expenses (like rates, insurance, and management fees), and capital expenditures. The resulting net operating income for each year is then discounted to a present value using an appropriate discount rate that reflects the investment’s risk. In an economic downturn, the most immediate and significant risk to a property’s cash flow is the loss of income from tenants. This can occur through tenants vacating at lease expiry without immediate replacement or through tenant default and bankruptcy. Therefore, the assumption for vacancy and credit loss becomes the most critical variable to adjust. While operating expenses like council rates may rise, and capital projects are a consideration, the potential for a sudden and substantial drop in rental income due to tenant instability poses the greatest threat to the investment’s performance and must be modelled with the utmost conservatism. This adjustment is crucial for providing a realistic valuation that aligns with the heightened risks under the Property Law Act 2007 concerning commercial lease defaults.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Assessment of the financial advice a property manager, Anaru, should provide to his new client, Chloe, reveals a critical interaction between tax law and tenancy regulations. Chloe has just purchased her first rental property which requires significant expenditure to meet the Healthy Homes Standards. This expenditure will push the property into a financial loss for the first year. Chloe also earns a salary from her full-time job. What is the correct advice Anaru should provide regarding the tax treatment of this first-year loss?
Correct
\[ \text{Total Rental Expenses} = \text{Operating Expenses} + \text{Compliance Costs} \] \[ \text{Net Rental Result} = \text{Gross Rental Income} – \text{Total Rental Expenses} \] If the Net Rental Result is negative (a loss), under the ring-fencing rules: \[ \text{Taxable Income from Other Sources} – \text{Net Rental Loss} \neq \text{Total Taxable Income} \] Instead, the Net Rental Loss is carried forward to offset future rental income or gains from the residential property portfolio. The landlord’s tax liability on their primary income remains unaffected in the current tax year by the rental loss. The financial management of residential rental properties in New Zealand is governed by several key regulations, including specific tax rules. A significant rule is the ring-fencing of residential property losses, which was introduced to prevent investors from using rental losses to reduce their tax liability on other income, such as salary or wages. In this scenario, the costs incurred to meet the Healthy Homes Standards are considered tax-deductible expenses for the rental property. When these expenses, combined with other operating costs like rates, insurance, and interest, exceed the rental income for the year, a net loss occurs. This loss is ‘ring-fenced’. This means it cannot be subtracted from the landlord’s other income. Instead, the loss is carried forward to the next tax year. It can then be used to offset any rental profit made from the property portfolio in that future year. If the property is sold, any remaining carried-forward losses can generally be used to offset any taxable income resulting from the sale. A property manager must have a clear understanding of this principle to guide landlords appropriately, ensuring they are aware that initial high compliance costs will result in a loss that cannot immediately reduce their overall tax bill.
Incorrect
\[ \text{Total Rental Expenses} = \text{Operating Expenses} + \text{Compliance Costs} \] \[ \text{Net Rental Result} = \text{Gross Rental Income} – \text{Total Rental Expenses} \] If the Net Rental Result is negative (a loss), under the ring-fencing rules: \[ \text{Taxable Income from Other Sources} – \text{Net Rental Loss} \neq \text{Total Taxable Income} \] Instead, the Net Rental Loss is carried forward to offset future rental income or gains from the residential property portfolio. The landlord’s tax liability on their primary income remains unaffected in the current tax year by the rental loss. The financial management of residential rental properties in New Zealand is governed by several key regulations, including specific tax rules. A significant rule is the ring-fencing of residential property losses, which was introduced to prevent investors from using rental losses to reduce their tax liability on other income, such as salary or wages. In this scenario, the costs incurred to meet the Healthy Homes Standards are considered tax-deductible expenses for the rental property. When these expenses, combined with other operating costs like rates, insurance, and interest, exceed the rental income for the year, a net loss occurs. This loss is ‘ring-fenced’. This means it cannot be subtracted from the landlord’s other income. Instead, the loss is carried forward to the next tax year. It can then be used to offset any rental profit made from the property portfolio in that future year. If the property is sold, any remaining carried-forward losses can generally be used to offset any taxable income resulting from the sale. A property manager must have a clear understanding of this principle to guide landlords appropriately, ensuring they are aware that initial high compliance costs will result in a loss that cannot immediately reduce their overall tax bill.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Anaru, a licensed property manager, is tasked with finding a tenant for a two-bedroom apartment owned by his client, Mrs. Perera. During their initial discussion, Mrs. Perera states, “I’ve had issues before, so I’d much prefer a quiet, mature couple without any children or flatmates.” Anaru subsequently receives applications from a professional couple, a solo father with a stable income and excellent references for his ten-year-old son, and two postgraduate students with parental guarantees. Considering Anaru’s obligations under the REAA Code of Conduct and relevant New Zealand legislation, what is his most appropriate and legally compliant course of action?
Correct
In New Zealand, the process of tenant screening and selection is governed by several key pieces of legislation, primarily the Human Rights Act 1993, the Privacy Act 2020, and the Residential Tenancies Act 1986. A real estate licensee acting as a property manager must navigate their duties to their client, the landlord, within the strict confines of these laws. The Human Rights Act explicitly prohibits discrimination on various grounds, including family status, which encompasses having children. Therefore, a landlord’s preference to exclude tenants with children is unlawful. A licensee’s primary duty is not to blindly follow a client’s instructions, but to act in their best interests while upholding the law. This means the licensee has a professional obligation to advise their client that such a request is discriminatory and cannot be acted upon. The correct and professional course of action is to refuse to implement any discriminatory instructions and to proceed with assessing all potential tenants based on lawful, objective criteria. These criteria include the applicant’s ability to pay rent, their credit history, and references from previous landlords or employers. All information collected must be necessary for the decision-making process, respecting the principles of the Privacy Act. By educating the client and conducting a fair assessment of all applicants on their individual merits, the licensee fulfills their professional obligations and protects the client from potential legal action at the Human Rights Review Tribunal.
Incorrect
In New Zealand, the process of tenant screening and selection is governed by several key pieces of legislation, primarily the Human Rights Act 1993, the Privacy Act 2020, and the Residential Tenancies Act 1986. A real estate licensee acting as a property manager must navigate their duties to their client, the landlord, within the strict confines of these laws. The Human Rights Act explicitly prohibits discrimination on various grounds, including family status, which encompasses having children. Therefore, a landlord’s preference to exclude tenants with children is unlawful. A licensee’s primary duty is not to blindly follow a client’s instructions, but to act in their best interests while upholding the law. This means the licensee has a professional obligation to advise their client that such a request is discriminatory and cannot be acted upon. The correct and professional course of action is to refuse to implement any discriminatory instructions and to proceed with assessing all potential tenants based on lawful, objective criteria. These criteria include the applicant’s ability to pay rent, their credit history, and references from previous landlords or employers. All information collected must be necessary for the decision-making process, respecting the principles of the Privacy Act. By educating the client and conducting a fair assessment of all applicants on their individual merits, the licensee fulfills their professional obligations and protects the client from potential legal action at the Human Rights Review Tribunal.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
The following case concerns Aroha, a salaried employee of ‘Kiwi Property Holdings Ltd’, a large commercial property investment firm. Aroha’s role is to manage a specific portfolio of office buildings owned by the firm. Her responsibilities include sourcing and negotiating lease agreements with new tenants and handling lease renewals for existing tenants. Her remuneration package consists of a base salary plus an annual bonus tied to the overall financial performance and occupancy rates of her assigned portfolio. Based on the provisions of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, what is Aroha’s legal position regarding the requirement to hold a real estate license for these activities?
Correct
Aroha is not required to hold a real estate license for the activities described. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 outlines specific exemptions to the requirement for a person to be licensed to carry out real estate agency work. Section 6 of the Act provides these exemptions. A key exemption applies to employees of a person who is not a real estate agent. This exemption allows individuals who own property, or companies that own property, to use their own direct employees to manage, sell, or lease that property without those employees needing to be licensed. In this scenario, Aroha is a direct employee of Kiwi Property Holdings Ltd, the owner of the properties. The work she performs, including sourcing tenants and negotiating leases, is carried out in the ordinary course of her employment duties for her employer. The fact that her employer is the property owner and not a real estate agency is critical. Her remuneration structure, which includes a performance-based bonus tied to portfolio performance rather than individual transaction commissions, does not change her status as an employee under this exemption. Therefore, she falls squarely within the exemption provided by the Act and can legally perform these duties without a license.
Incorrect
Aroha is not required to hold a real estate license for the activities described. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 outlines specific exemptions to the requirement for a person to be licensed to carry out real estate agency work. Section 6 of the Act provides these exemptions. A key exemption applies to employees of a person who is not a real estate agent. This exemption allows individuals who own property, or companies that own property, to use their own direct employees to manage, sell, or lease that property without those employees needing to be licensed. In this scenario, Aroha is a direct employee of Kiwi Property Holdings Ltd, the owner of the properties. The work she performs, including sourcing tenants and negotiating leases, is carried out in the ordinary course of her employment duties for her employer. The fact that her employer is the property owner and not a real estate agency is critical. Her remuneration structure, which includes a performance-based bonus tied to portfolio performance rather than individual transaction commissions, does not change her status as an employee under this exemption. Therefore, she falls squarely within the exemption provided by the Act and can legally perform these duties without a license.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Anaru, a licensee, is marketing a property for his client, Kenji, who needs to sell quickly and with certainty to finalize a job relocation. Anaru receives a written, unconditional offer for $950,000 with a 20-day settlement. Shortly after, another agent communicates that their buyer is “very interested” and is “likely to offer around $980,000” but their offer would be conditional on the sale of their own home, which is not yet on the market. Kenji’s primary goal is the certainty of a sale. Considering Anaru’s professional obligations, which negotiation strategy best serves Kenji’s interests?
Correct
The core of this scenario lies in the licensee’s obligation under Rule 6.2 of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, which mandates acting in the client’s best interests and in accordance with their instructions. The client, Kenji, has explicitly stated that his primary motivation is a swift and certain sale to facilitate his relocation, even if it means not achieving the absolute maximum price. This defines his ‘best interest’ in this context. The first offer, while lower in value, is unconditional and has a short settlement date, directly aligning with Kenji’s primary objective. The second expression of interest is for a higher amount but is contingent on the sale of another property, introducing significant uncertainty and potential delays. A professional licensee must prioritize the client’s stated interests over a simple positional goal of ‘highest price’. Therefore, the most effective and ethical negotiation strategy is to advise Kenji on the comparative strengths and weaknesses of each situation relative to his goals. The licensee should highlight that the first offer provides the certainty and speed he seeks, whereas the second carries substantial risk and does not align with his primary need. The strategy should focus on securing the outcome that best matches the client’s instructed priorities, which is an example of interest-based negotiation rather than purely positional bargaining.
Incorrect
The core of this scenario lies in the licensee’s obligation under Rule 6.2 of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, which mandates acting in the client’s best interests and in accordance with their instructions. The client, Kenji, has explicitly stated that his primary motivation is a swift and certain sale to facilitate his relocation, even if it means not achieving the absolute maximum price. This defines his ‘best interest’ in this context. The first offer, while lower in value, is unconditional and has a short settlement date, directly aligning with Kenji’s primary objective. The second expression of interest is for a higher amount but is contingent on the sale of another property, introducing significant uncertainty and potential delays. A professional licensee must prioritize the client’s stated interests over a simple positional goal of ‘highest price’. Therefore, the most effective and ethical negotiation strategy is to advise Kenji on the comparative strengths and weaknesses of each situation relative to his goals. The licensee should highlight that the first offer provides the certainty and speed he seeks, whereas the second carries substantial risk and does not align with his primary need. The strategy should focus on securing the outcome that best matches the client’s instructed priorities, which is an example of interest-based negotiation rather than purely positional bargaining.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
An assessment of a mortgagee’s actions is required in the following situation. A bank, as the mortgagee, has exercised its power of sale over a property belonging to the mortgagor, Hana. The total debt including all costs and interest is $650,000. The bank markets the property and receives two written offers. The first offer is for $655,000, cash unconditional, with a quick settlement. The second offer is for $685,000, but it is conditional on the purchaser securing finance within 10 working days. To finalise the matter quickly and eliminate risk, the bank immediately accepts the $655,000 unconditional offer. Considering the mortgagee’s obligations under the Property Law Act 2007, which statement best evaluates the bank’s decision?
Correct
The central legal principle governing this scenario is the mortgagee’s duty of care when exercising its power of sale, as stipulated in section 176 of the Property Law Act 2007. This section imposes a duty on the mortgagee to take reasonable care to obtain the best price reasonably obtainable at the time of sale. This duty is owed not only to the mortgagee itself but also to the mortgagor and any subsequent mortgagees or guarantors. The obligation is not merely to sell the property for a price that covers the outstanding debt and associated costs. Instead, the mortgagee must act in a way that actively seeks the highest possible market value for the property under the circumstances. In the given situation, the mortgagee received two offers. One was a quick, unconditional cash offer sufficient to cover its exposure, while the other was a higher but conditional offer. By accepting the lower offer primarily for reasons of speed and certainty without properly evaluating the likelihood of the higher conditional offer proceeding or using it as leverage, the mortgagee has likely failed in its duty. The focus on simply recovering the debt, rather than maximizing the sale price for the benefit of all interested parties, including the mortgagor who is entitled to any surplus, constitutes a probable breach of the statutory duty of care under section 176. The mortgagee should have taken further steps to assess the viability of the higher offer before making a final decision.
Incorrect
The central legal principle governing this scenario is the mortgagee’s duty of care when exercising its power of sale, as stipulated in section 176 of the Property Law Act 2007. This section imposes a duty on the mortgagee to take reasonable care to obtain the best price reasonably obtainable at the time of sale. This duty is owed not only to the mortgagee itself but also to the mortgagor and any subsequent mortgagees or guarantors. The obligation is not merely to sell the property for a price that covers the outstanding debt and associated costs. Instead, the mortgagee must act in a way that actively seeks the highest possible market value for the property under the circumstances. In the given situation, the mortgagee received two offers. One was a quick, unconditional cash offer sufficient to cover its exposure, while the other was a higher but conditional offer. By accepting the lower offer primarily for reasons of speed and certainty without properly evaluating the likelihood of the higher conditional offer proceeding or using it as leverage, the mortgagee has likely failed in its duty. The focus on simply recovering the debt, rather than maximizing the sale price for the benefit of all interested parties, including the mortgagor who is entitled to any surplus, constitutes a probable breach of the statutory duty of care under section 176. The mortgagee should have taken further steps to assess the viability of the higher offer before making a final decision.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Assessment of Matiu’s application for a real estate salesperson’s licence reveals a conviction for reckless driving causing injury from eight years ago. Matiu fully disclosed this in his application, providing context and evidence of rehabilitation. Under the ‘fit and proper person’ criteria of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, what is the most likely determination the Registrar of the Real Estate Authority will make regarding this specific issue?
Correct
The Registrar of the Real Estate Authority will evaluate the disclosed conviction as part of a holistic assessment under the ‘fit and proper person’ test, rather than applying an automatic disqualification. The decision will be based on discretionary judgment, considering multiple factors related to the applicant’s character and the specific circumstances of the past offence. Under Section 36 of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, an applicant for a licence must be a ‘fit and proper person’. This requirement is fundamental to protecting the public and maintaining confidence in the real estate profession. When an applicant discloses a past criminal conviction, the Registrar does not apply a blanket rule of disqualification unless the conviction is for a crime involving dishonesty as specified in the Act, which would trigger an automatic ban. For other convictions, such as the one in the scenario, the Registrar must conduct a thorough assessment. This involves considering the nature and seriousness of the offence, its relevance to the responsibilities of a real estate licensee, the time that has elapsed since the conviction, and the applicant’s conduct and character since the event. Full and honest disclosure by the applicant is viewed favourably as it demonstrates integrity. The Registrar weighs all these elements to form a judgment on whether the applicant currently possesses the honesty, integrity, and reputation required to be a licensee. The process is discretionary and contextual, not a simple pass or fail based on a single past event.
Incorrect
The Registrar of the Real Estate Authority will evaluate the disclosed conviction as part of a holistic assessment under the ‘fit and proper person’ test, rather than applying an automatic disqualification. The decision will be based on discretionary judgment, considering multiple factors related to the applicant’s character and the specific circumstances of the past offence. Under Section 36 of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, an applicant for a licence must be a ‘fit and proper person’. This requirement is fundamental to protecting the public and maintaining confidence in the real estate profession. When an applicant discloses a past criminal conviction, the Registrar does not apply a blanket rule of disqualification unless the conviction is for a crime involving dishonesty as specified in the Act, which would trigger an automatic ban. For other convictions, such as the one in the scenario, the Registrar must conduct a thorough assessment. This involves considering the nature and seriousness of the offence, its relevance to the responsibilities of a real estate licensee, the time that has elapsed since the conviction, and the applicant’s conduct and character since the event. Full and honest disclosure by the applicant is viewed favourably as it demonstrates integrity. The Registrar weighs all these elements to form a judgment on whether the applicant currently possesses the honesty, integrity, and reputation required to be a licensee. The process is discretionary and contextual, not a simple pass or fail based on a single past event.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider a scenario where Anika, a property manager, manages a rental property for an overseas landlord, Mr. Chen. The property’s heat pump is failing, and a full replacement costing $3,000 is required before winter. The tenancy agreement lists the heat pump as a provided chattel. Anika’s management agreement with Mr. Chen authorises her to approve unbudgeted maintenance up to $500 without prior consent. Mr. Chen is currently on a remote expedition and is uncontactable for the next two weeks. The tenant has formally requested the replacement in writing, citing concerns for the approaching cold season. What is the most appropriate course of action for Anika, consistent with her professional and legal obligations under the REA Code of Conduct 2012 and the scope of her agency?
Correct
The core of this issue lies in the property manager’s delegated authority as defined by the agency agreement with the landlord. The property manager, Anika, has a financial limit of $500 for unapproved expenditure. The required repair costs $3,000, which is significantly beyond this limit. Her primary fiduciary duty, as mandated by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the REA Code of Conduct 2012, is to her client, the landlord Mr. Chen. Acting in the client’s best interest (Rule 6.1) and exercising due skill and care (Rule 9.2) means she must not exceed the authority granted to her in the management agreement. Authorising a $3,000 expense without permission would be a serious breach of this agreement and her professional obligations. While the landlord has an obligation under the Residential Tenancies Act 1986 to maintain the premises, and the tenant has a right to a functional heat pump as listed, the property manager’s role is to facilitate this within the bounds of her contract. The situation is not an “urgent repair” under the RTA’s specific definitions, which typically involve immediate health or safety risks like a burst pipe or total electrical failure. Therefore, the correct professional process is to document the tenant’s request, make every reasonable effort to contact the landlord, clearly communicate the reason for the delay to the tenant, and wait for the landlord’s explicit approval before committing to any expenditure that exceeds her authority.
Incorrect
The core of this issue lies in the property manager’s delegated authority as defined by the agency agreement with the landlord. The property manager, Anika, has a financial limit of $500 for unapproved expenditure. The required repair costs $3,000, which is significantly beyond this limit. Her primary fiduciary duty, as mandated by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the REA Code of Conduct 2012, is to her client, the landlord Mr. Chen. Acting in the client’s best interest (Rule 6.1) and exercising due skill and care (Rule 9.2) means she must not exceed the authority granted to her in the management agreement. Authorising a $3,000 expense without permission would be a serious breach of this agreement and her professional obligations. While the landlord has an obligation under the Residential Tenancies Act 1986 to maintain the premises, and the tenant has a right to a functional heat pump as listed, the property manager’s role is to facilitate this within the bounds of her contract. The situation is not an “urgent repair” under the RTA’s specific definitions, which typically involve immediate health or safety risks like a burst pipe or total electrical failure. Therefore, the correct professional process is to document the tenant’s request, make every reasonable effort to contact the landlord, clearly communicate the reason for the delay to the tenant, and wait for the landlord’s explicit approval before committing to any expenditure that exceeds her authority.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Anika, a real estate licensee, has integrated an AI-powered marketing tool to create social media campaigns for her listings. The tool generates posts featuring highly embellished descriptions, calling a modest property an “unrivalled sanctuary,” and intersperses property photos with generic lifestyle stock images of people enjoying activities unrelated to the property itself. Anika reviews and approves all posts before they are published. An assessment of this digital strategy highlights a primary compliance risk under the REA Code of Conduct. What is this primary risk?
Correct
The core compliance failure stems from the licensee’s ultimate responsibility for advertising content that is likely to be deemed misleading and unsubstantiated under the REA Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. The licensee, Anika, is accountable for all marketing materials published in connection with her services, irrespective of their origin, including content generated by an artificial intelligence tool. The REA Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, specifically Rule 10 which governs advertising and promotion, is central to this issue. Rule 10.2 states that a licensee must not mislead customers or clients, nor provide false information or withhold information that should be provided. The use of unsubstantiated superlatives such as “unparalleled urban oasis” or “once-in-a-lifetime architectural masterpiece” for a standard home could easily be interpreted as misleading. Furthermore, Rule 10.3 requires that a licensee must be able to substantiate any claims or statements of fact made in advertising. It would be difficult, if not impossible, for Anika to provide objective evidence to support such exaggerated claims. The use of generic stock lifestyle images, not directly related to the property, further contributes to creating a potentially false or misleading impression of the property and its environment. While obtaining vendor approval for advertising is a requirement under Rule 10.4, that approval does not absolve the licensee from their professional duty to ensure the content itself is compliant with all other rules regarding truthfulness and accuracy. The primary risk is the breach of conduct concerning the nature of the content itself.
Incorrect
The core compliance failure stems from the licensee’s ultimate responsibility for advertising content that is likely to be deemed misleading and unsubstantiated under the REA Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. The licensee, Anika, is accountable for all marketing materials published in connection with her services, irrespective of their origin, including content generated by an artificial intelligence tool. The REA Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012, specifically Rule 10 which governs advertising and promotion, is central to this issue. Rule 10.2 states that a licensee must not mislead customers or clients, nor provide false information or withhold information that should be provided. The use of unsubstantiated superlatives such as “unparalleled urban oasis” or “once-in-a-lifetime architectural masterpiece” for a standard home could easily be interpreted as misleading. Furthermore, Rule 10.3 requires that a licensee must be able to substantiate any claims or statements of fact made in advertising. It would be difficult, if not impossible, for Anika to provide objective evidence to support such exaggerated claims. The use of generic stock lifestyle images, not directly related to the property, further contributes to creating a potentially false or misleading impression of the property and its environment. While obtaining vendor approval for advertising is a requirement under Rule 10.4, that approval does not absolve the licensee from their professional duty to ensure the content itself is compliant with all other rules regarding truthfulness and accuracy. The primary risk is the breach of conduct concerning the nature of the content itself.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Anika, a licensed property manager, conducts a routine inspection of a two-storey rental property and discovers the handrail on the upstairs balcony is dangerously loose. The tenants, a family with young children, have also expressed their concern. Anika immediately contacts the overseas-based landlord, who is hesitant about the cost of a full replacement and suggests she just “tack a few screws in it for now” as a temporary measure. An assessment of this situation reveals a direct conflict between the landlord’s instruction and a significant safety hazard. Which course of action best demonstrates Anika’s adherence to her professional and legal obligations under New Zealand law?
Correct
No calculation is required for this question. A property manager in New Zealand operates as a Person Conducting a Business or Undertaking (PCBU) under the Health and Safety at Work Act 2015 (HSWA). This imposes a primary duty of care to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health and safety of tenants, visitors, and others affected by the work carried out as part of the business. This duty exists independently of the landlord’s instructions. In the described scenario, the wobbly balcony handrail presents a serious and immediate risk of harm, particularly with children present. The property manager’s obligations under the HSWA to mitigate this risk are paramount. Simultaneously, under section 45 of the Residential Tenancies Act 1986 (RTA), the landlord has an obligation to provide and maintain the premises in a reasonable state of repair. A faulty safety barrier like a handrail is a clear breach of this obligation. When a repair is urgent and necessary to protect a person’s health or safety, and the landlord fails to act promptly after being notified, the property manager has the authority to arrange for the repair to be carried out by a qualified professional. The cost of such urgent repairs can be recovered from the landlord. Simply following a landlord’s instruction for a non-compliant or temporary fix would not discharge the property manager’s duty under HSWA and could result in significant liability if an incident were to occur. The correct professional action involves formally documenting the risk, communicating the legal obligations to the landlord, and taking decisive action to ensure the safety of the tenants by organising a compliant repair if the landlord fails to do so in a timely manner.
Incorrect
No calculation is required for this question. A property manager in New Zealand operates as a Person Conducting a Business or Undertaking (PCBU) under the Health and Safety at Work Act 2015 (HSWA). This imposes a primary duty of care to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health and safety of tenants, visitors, and others affected by the work carried out as part of the business. This duty exists independently of the landlord’s instructions. In the described scenario, the wobbly balcony handrail presents a serious and immediate risk of harm, particularly with children present. The property manager’s obligations under the HSWA to mitigate this risk are paramount. Simultaneously, under section 45 of the Residential Tenancies Act 1986 (RTA), the landlord has an obligation to provide and maintain the premises in a reasonable state of repair. A faulty safety barrier like a handrail is a clear breach of this obligation. When a repair is urgent and necessary to protect a person’s health or safety, and the landlord fails to act promptly after being notified, the property manager has the authority to arrange for the repair to be carried out by a qualified professional. The cost of such urgent repairs can be recovered from the landlord. Simply following a landlord’s instruction for a non-compliant or temporary fix would not discharge the property manager’s duty under HSWA and could result in significant liability if an incident were to occur. The correct professional action involves formally documenting the risk, communicating the legal obligations to the landlord, and taking decisive action to ensure the safety of the tenants by organising a compliant repair if the landlord fails to do so in a timely manner.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A property developer, Kenji, acquires a parcel of land in a provincial New Zealand town. The land is currently zoned ‘Residential – Single House Zone’ under the operative District Plan. Kenji’s intention is to construct a high-density, multi-unit residential complex. A preliminary investigation reveals the property shares a boundary with a small stream that is listed in the District Plan as a site of significance to the local iwi. Given the nature of the proposed development and the site’s characteristics, what is the most critical initial action a planning consultant should advise Kenji to undertake to effectively navigate the resource consent process under the Resource Management Act 1991?
Correct
The proposed development involves constructing a multi-unit complex on land zoned ‘Residential – Single House Zone’, which represents a significant departure from the permitted activity standards outlined in the District Plan. This intensity of development would likely classify the activity as either discretionary or non-complying. Furthermore, the property’s proximity to a stream identified as culturally significant to the local iwi introduces a critical environmental and cultural consideration. Under the Resource Management Act 1991, particularly Section 8, local authorities have a statutory duty to take into account the principles of the Treaty of Waitangi. This includes recognising and providing for the relationship of Maori and their culture and traditions with their ancestral lands, water, sites, waahi tapu, and other taonga. Therefore, the potential adverse effects on these cultural values are a primary concern for the consent authority. A failure to engage with the relevant iwi at the earliest possible stage demonstrates a disregard for these principles and can create a significant obstacle to obtaining consent. Proactive, genuine consultation allows the developer to understand the specific cultural values, identify potential adverse effects from the iwi’s perspective, and collaboratively explore methods to avoid, remedy, or mitigate these effects. This information is essential for preparing a robust Assessment of Environmental Effects (AEE) and demonstrates to the council that the applicant has taken their statutory obligations seriously, significantly improving the likelihood of a positive outcome.
Incorrect
The proposed development involves constructing a multi-unit complex on land zoned ‘Residential – Single House Zone’, which represents a significant departure from the permitted activity standards outlined in the District Plan. This intensity of development would likely classify the activity as either discretionary or non-complying. Furthermore, the property’s proximity to a stream identified as culturally significant to the local iwi introduces a critical environmental and cultural consideration. Under the Resource Management Act 1991, particularly Section 8, local authorities have a statutory duty to take into account the principles of the Treaty of Waitangi. This includes recognising and providing for the relationship of Maori and their culture and traditions with their ancestral lands, water, sites, waahi tapu, and other taonga. Therefore, the potential adverse effects on these cultural values are a primary concern for the consent authority. A failure to engage with the relevant iwi at the earliest possible stage demonstrates a disregard for these principles and can create a significant obstacle to obtaining consent. Proactive, genuine consultation allows the developer to understand the specific cultural values, identify potential adverse effects from the iwi’s perspective, and collaboratively explore methods to avoid, remedy, or mitigate these effects. This information is essential for preparing a robust Assessment of Environmental Effects (AEE) and demonstrates to the council that the applicant has taken their statutory obligations seriously, significantly improving the likelihood of a positive outcome.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
An assessment of the commercial office market in central Dunedin reveals a significant “hardening” or compression of capitalization rates over the last fiscal year, with the average rate for A-grade office space moving from 6.25% down to 5.0%. A licensee, Hana, is advising a client who owns a fully tenanted A-grade office building with a stable Net Operating Income (NOI). The client is concerned this lower rate means their asset is now performing poorly. What is the most accurate explanation Hana should provide regarding the direct impact of this market-wide cap rate compression on the client’s property value?
Correct
The calculation to determine a property’s value using the income capitalization approach is based on the relationship between Net Operating Income (NOI) and the capitalization rate (cap rate). The formula is: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\text{Net Operating Income (NOI)}}{\text{Capitalization Rate}} \] Consider a commercial property with a stable NOI of NZ$150,000 per annum. Initially, the prevailing market capitalization rate for similar properties is 6.5%. The property’s estimated value would be: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\$150,000}{0.065} \] \[ \text{Value} \approx \$2,307,692 \] Now, assume due to increased investor confidence and lower perceived risk in the market, the capitalization rate “compresses” or decreases to 5.0% for comparable properties. The NOI of the subject property remains unchanged. The new estimated value is: \[ \text{New Value} = \frac{\$150,000}{0.050} \] \[ \text{New Value} = \$3,000,000 \] This calculation demonstrates the inverse relationship between capitalization rates and property values. A capitalization rate is a representation of the perceived risk and the expected rate of return on an investment property at a specific point in time. A lower cap rate implies that investors are willing to pay a higher price for each dollar of income, which typically occurs in markets with strong demand, low perceived risk, and stable tenants. This is often referred to as cap rate “compression” or “hardening”. Conversely, a higher cap rate suggests greater perceived risk or a demand for higher returns, leading investors to pay less for the same income stream. This is known as cap rate “decompression” or “softening”. Therefore, when the market-wide cap rate for a certain asset class decreases while the income generated by a property within that class remains constant, the capital value of that property increases. This is because the denominator in the valuation formula has decreased, resulting in a higher quotient, which is the property’s value. This dynamic is crucial for licensees to explain to clients when discussing market trends and their portfolio’s performance.
Incorrect
The calculation to determine a property’s value using the income capitalization approach is based on the relationship between Net Operating Income (NOI) and the capitalization rate (cap rate). The formula is: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\text{Net Operating Income (NOI)}}{\text{Capitalization Rate}} \] Consider a commercial property with a stable NOI of NZ$150,000 per annum. Initially, the prevailing market capitalization rate for similar properties is 6.5%. The property’s estimated value would be: \[ \text{Value} = \frac{\$150,000}{0.065} \] \[ \text{Value} \approx \$2,307,692 \] Now, assume due to increased investor confidence and lower perceived risk in the market, the capitalization rate “compresses” or decreases to 5.0% for comparable properties. The NOI of the subject property remains unchanged. The new estimated value is: \[ \text{New Value} = \frac{\$150,000}{0.050} \] \[ \text{New Value} = \$3,000,000 \] This calculation demonstrates the inverse relationship between capitalization rates and property values. A capitalization rate is a representation of the perceived risk and the expected rate of return on an investment property at a specific point in time. A lower cap rate implies that investors are willing to pay a higher price for each dollar of income, which typically occurs in markets with strong demand, low perceived risk, and stable tenants. This is often referred to as cap rate “compression” or “hardening”. Conversely, a higher cap rate suggests greater perceived risk or a demand for higher returns, leading investors to pay less for the same income stream. This is known as cap rate “decompression” or “softening”. Therefore, when the market-wide cap rate for a certain asset class decreases while the income generated by a property within that class remains constant, the capital value of that property increases. This is because the denominator in the valuation formula has decreased, resulting in a higher quotient, which is the property’s value. This dynamic is crucial for licensees to explain to clients when discussing market trends and their portfolio’s performance.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
An assessment of a Category 1 heritage-listed commercial building in Dunedin’s Octagon, currently used by its owner, presents several valuation complexities. If a valuer were to utilise the cost approach as part of their analysis, what would constitute the most significant and inherently subjective challenge in arriving at a credible valuation?
Correct
The cost approach to valuation determines a property’s value by calculating the cost to replace the improvements, adding the value of the land, and then subtracting any accrued depreciation. Its fundamental formula is Value = Land Value + (Cost of Improvements) – Accrued Depreciation. When valuing a unique, historic, or heritage-listed property, this method presents significant challenges. The primary difficulty lies in two key areas. First, estimating the cost of improvements is complex. One must decide between reproduction cost, which is the cost to create an exact replica using original materials and craftsmanship, and replacement cost, the cost to build a modern structure with equivalent utility. For a heritage building with irreplaceable features, calculating a true reproduction cost is often speculative and may be economically infeasible. Second, and more critically, is the quantification of accrued depreciation. Depreciation is not just physical wear and tear; it includes functional obsolescence, which relates to outdated design or features that do not meet current standards, and external or economic obsolescence, which stems from factors outside the property, such as zoning changes or market shifts. For a heritage-listed building, functional obsolescence can be substantial due to restrictions on modernisation. External obsolescence can also be significant if the heritage status itself limits the property’s highest and best use compared to non-listed properties. Accurately measuring these forms of depreciation is highly subjective and can lead to a wide range of value conclusions, making the cost approach the least reliable method in such a scenario.
Incorrect
The cost approach to valuation determines a property’s value by calculating the cost to replace the improvements, adding the value of the land, and then subtracting any accrued depreciation. Its fundamental formula is Value = Land Value + (Cost of Improvements) – Accrued Depreciation. When valuing a unique, historic, or heritage-listed property, this method presents significant challenges. The primary difficulty lies in two key areas. First, estimating the cost of improvements is complex. One must decide between reproduction cost, which is the cost to create an exact replica using original materials and craftsmanship, and replacement cost, the cost to build a modern structure with equivalent utility. For a heritage building with irreplaceable features, calculating a true reproduction cost is often speculative and may be economically infeasible. Second, and more critically, is the quantification of accrued depreciation. Depreciation is not just physical wear and tear; it includes functional obsolescence, which relates to outdated design or features that do not meet current standards, and external or economic obsolescence, which stems from factors outside the property, such as zoning changes or market shifts. For a heritage-listed building, functional obsolescence can be substantial due to restrictions on modernisation. External obsolescence can also be significant if the heritage status itself limits the property’s highest and best use compared to non-listed properties. Accurately measuring these forms of depreciation is highly subjective and can lead to a wide range of value conclusions, making the cost approach the least reliable method in such a scenario.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider a scenario where licensee Aroha signs a 90-day sole agency agreement with her client, Mr. Chen. The agreement includes a standard clause stating that commission is payable if the property is sold within six months following the expiry of the agency term to any person introduced by Aroha. During the 90-day period, Aroha introduces a prospective buyer, Ms. Patel, who views the property but does not make an offer at that time. The sole agency agreement expires, and Mr. Chen does not renew it. One month later, Mr. Chen contacts Ms. Patel directly, and they negotiate and sign a sale and purchase agreement for the property. Mr. Chen then informs Aroha that no commission is payable as the sale occurred outside the agency period. Based on the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules and the contractual nature of agency agreements in New Zealand, what is the most accurate assessment of this situation?
Correct
Aroha is entitled to the commission based on the principle of effective cause of sale, which is contractually reinforced by a common clause in approved agency agreements. Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, specifically Section 126, for an agent to be entitled to a commission, there must be a written agency agreement signed by the client that complies with all regulatory requirements. These agreements are legally binding contracts. A standard and legally enforceable provision within these agreements is a safety or holdover clause. This clause protects the agent’s work by stipulating that a commission is still payable if the property is sold within a specified period after the agency agreement expires, to a person who was introduced to the property by the agent during the term of the agency. In this scenario, Aroha’s introduction of Ms. Patel was the direct catalyst for the eventual sale. The fact that the final negotiation and agreement occurred after the sole agency period expired does not negate Aroha’s role as the effective cause of the transaction. The contractual clause in the signed agency agreement would have outlined this exact eventuality, making Mr. Chen liable for the commission as agreed. The agent’s right to commission is earned by finding a ready, willing, and able purchaser who ultimately buys the property as a result of the agent’s introduction, provided this is supported by the terms of the signed contract.
Incorrect
Aroha is entitled to the commission based on the principle of effective cause of sale, which is contractually reinforced by a common clause in approved agency agreements. Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, specifically Section 126, for an agent to be entitled to a commission, there must be a written agency agreement signed by the client that complies with all regulatory requirements. These agreements are legally binding contracts. A standard and legally enforceable provision within these agreements is a safety or holdover clause. This clause protects the agent’s work by stipulating that a commission is still payable if the property is sold within a specified period after the agency agreement expires, to a person who was introduced to the property by the agent during the term of the agency. In this scenario, Aroha’s introduction of Ms. Patel was the direct catalyst for the eventual sale. The fact that the final negotiation and agreement occurred after the sole agency period expired does not negate Aroha’s role as the effective cause of the transaction. The contractual clause in the signed agency agreement would have outlined this exact eventuality, making Mr. Chen liable for the commission as agreed. The agent’s right to commission is earned by finding a ready, willing, and able purchaser who ultimately buys the property as a result of the agent’s introduction, provided this is supported by the terms of the signed contract.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Aroha is a property manager overseeing a residential property in Christchurch that the owner, Mr. Chen, has decided to sell. The property is currently tenanted by a young family on a periodic tenancy. Aroha has informed the tenants of the owner’s intention to sell and needs to arrange viewings for prospective buyers. The tenants have expressed that they are only comfortable with viewings on one specific weekday for a two-hour window, which is limiting the sales campaign. Assessment of the situation shows a conflict between the owner’s need to market the property effectively and the tenant’s stated preference. According to the Residential Tenancies Act 1986, what is the most appropriate initial action for Aroha to take?
Correct
The correct course of action is determined by the specific requirements of the Residential Tenancies Act 1986 (RTA) regarding a landlord’s right of entry. Section 48 of the RTA outlines the conditions under which a landlord or their agent may enter the premises. For the purpose of showing the property to prospective purchasers, the landlord must have the tenant’s prior consent. Crucially, the tenant cannot unreasonably withhold this consent. However, this does not grant the landlord an unrestricted right to enter at their convenience. The process requires negotiation and reasonableness from both parties. The tenant’s right to quiet enjoyment, as protected under Section 38 of the RTA, remains paramount. This means the timing and frequency of viewings must be reasonable and mutually agreed upon whenever possible. A property manager must facilitate this negotiation. Simply providing notice is insufficient if the proposed times are consistently unreasonable for the tenant. The law encourages a collaborative approach. If the tenant is being unreasonable in their refusal, the landlord’s remedy is to apply to the Tenancy Tribunal for an order, not to force entry or unilaterally dictate terms. Therefore, the professional and legally compliant first step is to engage in good-faith negotiation to find mutually acceptable viewing times, documenting these attempts, before considering further formal action. This respects the tenant’s rights while still working to fulfill the landlord’s objective.
Incorrect
The correct course of action is determined by the specific requirements of the Residential Tenancies Act 1986 (RTA) regarding a landlord’s right of entry. Section 48 of the RTA outlines the conditions under which a landlord or their agent may enter the premises. For the purpose of showing the property to prospective purchasers, the landlord must have the tenant’s prior consent. Crucially, the tenant cannot unreasonably withhold this consent. However, this does not grant the landlord an unrestricted right to enter at their convenience. The process requires negotiation and reasonableness from both parties. The tenant’s right to quiet enjoyment, as protected under Section 38 of the RTA, remains paramount. This means the timing and frequency of viewings must be reasonable and mutually agreed upon whenever possible. A property manager must facilitate this negotiation. Simply providing notice is insufficient if the proposed times are consistently unreasonable for the tenant. The law encourages a collaborative approach. If the tenant is being unreasonable in their refusal, the landlord’s remedy is to apply to the Tenancy Tribunal for an order, not to force entry or unilaterally dictate terms. Therefore, the professional and legally compliant first step is to engage in good-faith negotiation to find mutually acceptable viewing times, documenting these attempts, before considering further formal action. This respects the tenant’s rights while still working to fulfill the landlord’s objective.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Anika, a licensee with ‘Alpine Realty Ltd’, is designing a pay-per-click (PPC) advertising campaign on a major search engine to market a premium property in Wanaka. The property has a registered valuation of \( \$3.1 \) million. The vendor is eager for a quick sale and has privately told Anika they would “happily take anything over \( \$2.8 \) million”. To generate the highest number of qualified leads while strictly adhering to her professional and legal obligations under New Zealand law, which of the following PPC ad copy strategies should Anika implement?
Correct
The core of this problem rests on a licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, specifically Rule 10.2 concerning misleading advertisements, and the broader principles of the Fair Trading Act 1986. The correct strategy must be accurate, verifiable, and not deceptive. 1. Analyze the pricing information: The property has a formal valuation of \( \$2.5 \) million. The vendor’s willingness to consider offers “around \( \$2.2 \) million” is informal and subjective. Using “From \( \$2.2\text{M} \)” in an advertisement is a form of price baiting and is misleading because it presents an informal, lower-end consideration as a definite starting price, which is a breach of the Fair Trading Act and REA rules. The most accurate and non-deceptive price information to use is the official valuation. 2. Analyze descriptive claims: Claims must be substantiated. Phrases like “Guaranteed to Sell Fast!” are unsubstantiated future predictions and create a misleading impression. While some level of “puffery” like “stunning views” is common, specific guarantees are a breach of professional standards. 3. Analyze disclosure requirements: Rule 10.3 of the Code of Conduct requires that any advertisement must clearly identify the licensee’s agency. An advertisement that omits the agency name to appear as a private listing is a direct violation of this rule. 4. Synthesize a compliant strategy: The only compliant approach is to use factual, verifiable information. This includes the property’s key features (bedrooms, bathrooms), the official valuation as a factual price indicator, and a professional call to action. This approach upholds the licensee’s duty to act professionally and avoid misleading the public. Therefore, the correct strategy is to present the verifiable facts of the property clearly and professionally, including the official valuation, without resorting to misleading price tactics, unsubstantiated claims, or omitting required disclosures.
Incorrect
The core of this problem rests on a licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, specifically Rule 10.2 concerning misleading advertisements, and the broader principles of the Fair Trading Act 1986. The correct strategy must be accurate, verifiable, and not deceptive. 1. Analyze the pricing information: The property has a formal valuation of \( \$2.5 \) million. The vendor’s willingness to consider offers “around \( \$2.2 \) million” is informal and subjective. Using “From \( \$2.2\text{M} \)” in an advertisement is a form of price baiting and is misleading because it presents an informal, lower-end consideration as a definite starting price, which is a breach of the Fair Trading Act and REA rules. The most accurate and non-deceptive price information to use is the official valuation. 2. Analyze descriptive claims: Claims must be substantiated. Phrases like “Guaranteed to Sell Fast!” are unsubstantiated future predictions and create a misleading impression. While some level of “puffery” like “stunning views” is common, specific guarantees are a breach of professional standards. 3. Analyze disclosure requirements: Rule 10.3 of the Code of Conduct requires that any advertisement must clearly identify the licensee’s agency. An advertisement that omits the agency name to appear as a private listing is a direct violation of this rule. 4. Synthesize a compliant strategy: The only compliant approach is to use factual, verifiable information. This includes the property’s key features (bedrooms, bathrooms), the official valuation as a factual price indicator, and a professional call to action. This approach upholds the licensee’s duty to act professionally and avoid misleading the public. Therefore, the correct strategy is to present the verifiable facts of the property clearly and professionally, including the official valuation, without resorting to misleading price tactics, unsubstantiated claims, or omitting required disclosures.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
An assessment of a transaction involving licensee Kenji and his client, Mere, reveals a significant dispute. Mere purchased a commercial property, and after settlement, she discovered that Kenji had failed to disclose a pending major zoning change that adversely affects the property’s permitted use, despite being aware of it. Mere is extremely dissatisfied and formally notifies Kenji’s agency principal in writing of her complaint, demanding action. According to the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, what is the required initial action for the agency principal to take?
Correct
Under Rule 10 of the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, every licensed real estate agency in New Zealand is required to establish and maintain a written in-house complaints and dispute resolution procedure. This procedure is the mandatory first step for handling any formal complaint received from a client or customer. Upon receiving a complaint, the agency’s primary obligation is to acknowledge it in writing. Concurrently, they must provide the complainant with a copy of their internal complaints process. This document must clearly outline the steps the agency will take to investigate the matter, the expected timeframes for each stage, and how the complainant will be kept informed. The purpose of this rule is to ensure that a transparent, fair, and accessible mechanism exists to resolve disputes at the agency level before they need to be escalated to the Real Estate Authority. Simply directing a complainant to the REA or attempting an informal resolution without invoking the formal written procedure would be a breach of this rule. The agency itself does not have the authority to suspend a licensee or refer matters directly to the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal; that is a function of the regulatory body following a formal investigation process initiated by a complaint to the REA.
Incorrect
Under Rule 10 of the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, every licensed real estate agency in New Zealand is required to establish and maintain a written in-house complaints and dispute resolution procedure. This procedure is the mandatory first step for handling any formal complaint received from a client or customer. Upon receiving a complaint, the agency’s primary obligation is to acknowledge it in writing. Concurrently, they must provide the complainant with a copy of their internal complaints process. This document must clearly outline the steps the agency will take to investigate the matter, the expected timeframes for each stage, and how the complainant will be kept informed. The purpose of this rule is to ensure that a transparent, fair, and accessible mechanism exists to resolve disputes at the agency level before they need to be escalated to the Real Estate Authority. Simply directing a complainant to the REA or attempting an informal resolution without invoking the formal written procedure would be a breach of this rule. The agency itself does not have the authority to suspend a licensee or refer matters directly to the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal; that is a function of the regulatory body following a formal investigation process initiated by a complaint to the REA.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Assessment of a new marketing strategy reveals that a licensee, Anaru, is utilising an advanced AI-powered platform to promote a high-end property. The platform automatically identifies potential buyers by aggregating data from their public social media profiles, property search histories on various portals, and other publicly accessible digital footprints. It then sends these individuals highly personalised direct messages on social media, referencing their presumed interests and recent online activities to suggest the property is a perfect match. What is the primary compliance risk Anaru faces by implementing this specific marketing technology?
Correct
Logical Deduction Process: 1. Identify the core activity: An AI tool is used to collect personal information from various online sources (social media, public records) without the individuals’ explicit consent for this purpose. 2. Identify the subsequent action: The collected information is used to send unsolicited, highly personalised commercial electronic messages via social media direct messaging. 3. Evaluate against the Privacy Act 2020: The collection of personal information must comply with the Information Privacy Principles (IPPs). IPP 1 requires that personal information is collected for a lawful purpose connected with an agency’s functions and that the collection is necessary for that purpose. IPP 3 requires that the individual concerned is made aware of the fact that the information is being collected, the purpose for its collection, and the intended recipients. The described process fails to meet these requirements as consent is not obtained, and individuals are unaware their data is being aggregated for targeted real estate marketing. 4. Evaluate against other regulations: The action also raises concerns under the Unsolicited Electronic Messages Act 2007, as the messages are commercial and sent without the recipient’s consent. It could also be argued to be conduct that could bring the industry into disrepute under Rule 6.4 of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 due to its intrusive nature. 5. Determine the primary compliance failure: While multiple regulations are relevant, the foundational breach is the collection and use of personal data. The ability to send the message, and the potential for it to be considered disreputable conduct, both stem from the initial, non-compliant gathering of personal information. Therefore, the most significant and primary compliance risk is the violation of the Privacy Act 2020. The use of sophisticated technology in marketing does not exempt a licensee from fundamental legal obligations. In New Zealand, the Privacy Act 2020 establishes a robust framework for how agencies, including real estate agencies, must handle personal information. This includes any information about an identifiable individual. The scenario describes a process of data scraping and profiling, which constitutes the collection of personal information. According to the Information Privacy Principles (IPPs) within the Act, such collection must be done lawfully and fairly. A key element of this is transparency; individuals should be aware that their information is being collected, by whom, and for what purpose. Using data collected for one purpose (e.g., a public social media profile) for an entirely different commercial purpose (direct marketing for a specific property) without the individual’s knowledge or consent is a clear breach of these principles. While the sending of the message itself engages the Unsolicited Electronic Messages Act 2007, the core compliance failure originates with the improper data handling governed by the Privacy Act. A licensee is directly responsible for ensuring their marketing practices, and any third-party tools they use, adhere strictly to these privacy laws to protect individuals and maintain professional integrity.
Incorrect
Logical Deduction Process: 1. Identify the core activity: An AI tool is used to collect personal information from various online sources (social media, public records) without the individuals’ explicit consent for this purpose. 2. Identify the subsequent action: The collected information is used to send unsolicited, highly personalised commercial electronic messages via social media direct messaging. 3. Evaluate against the Privacy Act 2020: The collection of personal information must comply with the Information Privacy Principles (IPPs). IPP 1 requires that personal information is collected for a lawful purpose connected with an agency’s functions and that the collection is necessary for that purpose. IPP 3 requires that the individual concerned is made aware of the fact that the information is being collected, the purpose for its collection, and the intended recipients. The described process fails to meet these requirements as consent is not obtained, and individuals are unaware their data is being aggregated for targeted real estate marketing. 4. Evaluate against other regulations: The action also raises concerns under the Unsolicited Electronic Messages Act 2007, as the messages are commercial and sent without the recipient’s consent. It could also be argued to be conduct that could bring the industry into disrepute under Rule 6.4 of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 due to its intrusive nature. 5. Determine the primary compliance failure: While multiple regulations are relevant, the foundational breach is the collection and use of personal data. The ability to send the message, and the potential for it to be considered disreputable conduct, both stem from the initial, non-compliant gathering of personal information. Therefore, the most significant and primary compliance risk is the violation of the Privacy Act 2020. The use of sophisticated technology in marketing does not exempt a licensee from fundamental legal obligations. In New Zealand, the Privacy Act 2020 establishes a robust framework for how agencies, including real estate agencies, must handle personal information. This includes any information about an identifiable individual. The scenario describes a process of data scraping and profiling, which constitutes the collection of personal information. According to the Information Privacy Principles (IPPs) within the Act, such collection must be done lawfully and fairly. A key element of this is transparency; individuals should be aware that their information is being collected, by whom, and for what purpose. Using data collected for one purpose (e.g., a public social media profile) for an entirely different commercial purpose (direct marketing for a specific property) without the individual’s knowledge or consent is a clear breach of these principles. While the sending of the message itself engages the Unsolicited Electronic Messages Act 2007, the core compliance failure originates with the improper data handling governed by the Privacy Act. A licensee is directly responsible for ensuring their marketing practices, and any third-party tools they use, adhere strictly to these privacy laws to protect individuals and maintain professional integrity.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
An assessment of a licensee’s marketing materials for a rural property reveals a specific claim: “The property benefits from exclusive access to a pristine private water bore.” During due diligence, a potential buyer discovers that while the bore is located on the property’s title, a longstanding verbal agreement, which is not legally recorded, allows the neighbouring property to draw water from it. The neighbour also contributes informally to its maintenance. Under the Fair Trading Act 1986, why is the licensee’s statement most likely to be considered misleading conduct?
Correct
The logical determination of the breach is as follows. The central issue is the licensee’s statement that the property has “exclusive access to a pristine private water bore”. The factual situation is that while the bore is on the property’s title, a verbal agreement exists for shared use with a neighbour. The Fair Trading Act 1986, particularly Section 9, prohibits conduct in trade that is misleading or deceptive or is likely to mislead or deceive. The test is not whether the statement is literally true in some narrow sense, but what the overall impression created in the mind of a reasonable consumer is. The term “exclusive access” directly contradicts the shared use arrangement, making it a clear misrepresentation. Furthermore, even without the word “exclusive”, the omission of the fact that the water source is shared is a material omission. A reasonable buyer would assume a “private bore” for a property is for that property’s sole use unless otherwise specified. The existence of a shared use agreement, especially an informal one, is a critical piece of information that could influence a person’s decision to purchase. Therefore, the combination of the inaccurate term “exclusive” and the failure to disclose the shared nature of the bore creates a misleading impression about the property’s water rights, which constitutes a breach of the Act. The licensee’s intention is irrelevant; the effect of the conduct is what is assessed. The Fair Trading Act 1986 is a cornerstone of consumer protection in New Zealand, and its principles apply directly to real estate transactions. Section 9 is the broadest provision, stating that no person in trade shall engage in conduct that is misleading or deceptive, or is likely to mislead or deceive. For a real estate licensee, this means all representations about a property, whether verbal, written, or pictorial, must be accurate and not create a false impression. It is not enough for a statement to be technically correct if the overall effect is misleading. This concept is often referred to as the “overall impression”. The courts assess whether a reasonable member of the target audience would likely be misled. A crucial aspect of this is silence or omission. Failing to disclose a material fact can be as misleading as making a false statement. In this scenario, the shared use of a water bore is a material fact. It affects the property’s utility, potential future costs, and legal security. A licensee has a professional obligation to verify key details about a property and to disclose any known material defects or adverse information to potential buyers. Relying on a narrow, literal interpretation of a statement while omitting critical context is a significant risk and is likely to be found to be a breach of the Act.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the breach is as follows. The central issue is the licensee’s statement that the property has “exclusive access to a pristine private water bore”. The factual situation is that while the bore is on the property’s title, a verbal agreement exists for shared use with a neighbour. The Fair Trading Act 1986, particularly Section 9, prohibits conduct in trade that is misleading or deceptive or is likely to mislead or deceive. The test is not whether the statement is literally true in some narrow sense, but what the overall impression created in the mind of a reasonable consumer is. The term “exclusive access” directly contradicts the shared use arrangement, making it a clear misrepresentation. Furthermore, even without the word “exclusive”, the omission of the fact that the water source is shared is a material omission. A reasonable buyer would assume a “private bore” for a property is for that property’s sole use unless otherwise specified. The existence of a shared use agreement, especially an informal one, is a critical piece of information that could influence a person’s decision to purchase. Therefore, the combination of the inaccurate term “exclusive” and the failure to disclose the shared nature of the bore creates a misleading impression about the property’s water rights, which constitutes a breach of the Act. The licensee’s intention is irrelevant; the effect of the conduct is what is assessed. The Fair Trading Act 1986 is a cornerstone of consumer protection in New Zealand, and its principles apply directly to real estate transactions. Section 9 is the broadest provision, stating that no person in trade shall engage in conduct that is misleading or deceptive, or is likely to mislead or deceive. For a real estate licensee, this means all representations about a property, whether verbal, written, or pictorial, must be accurate and not create a false impression. It is not enough for a statement to be technically correct if the overall effect is misleading. This concept is often referred to as the “overall impression”. The courts assess whether a reasonable member of the target audience would likely be misled. A crucial aspect of this is silence or omission. Failing to disclose a material fact can be as misleading as making a false statement. In this scenario, the shared use of a water bore is a material fact. It affects the property’s utility, potential future costs, and legal security. A licensee has a professional obligation to verify key details about a property and to disclose any known material defects or adverse information to potential buyers. Relying on a narrow, literal interpretation of a statement while omitting critical context is a significant risk and is likely to be found to be a breach of the Act.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
An assessment of a recent transaction reveals a complex ethical situation. A licensee, Hana, is representing her vendor. A potential purchaser, Liam, has viewed the property twice and expressed strong interest but is hesitant to commit. To prompt an offer, Hana informs Liam, “I need to be transparent with you; another party has just advised me they are meeting with their mortgage broker this evening to finalise their offer, which they intend to present tomorrow morning.” In reality, the other party had only sent a simple email enquiry asking for the property’s council file, with no mention of an offer or finances. Which of the following statements most accurately evaluates Hana’s conduct according to the REAA Code of Conduct?
Correct
The core issue in this scenario revolves around the licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, it tests the balance between a licensee’s duty to their client (the vendor) and their duty to a customer (the purchaser). While licensees are expected to use their skills to secure a favorable outcome for their client, these actions must not contravene their professional duties of honesty, fairness, and transparency. The use of an urgency closing technique is permissible only when the information conveyed is accurate and truthful. In this case, the licensee has materially exaggerated a casual enquiry, transforming it into a competing offer that is imminent. This constitutes misleading conduct. The statement is not a factual representation of the situation and is designed to place the purchaser under undue pressure to make a decision. This action directly conflicts with the licensee’s obligation under Rule 6.4 to treat customers with fairness and honesty. It also falls under the umbrella of unsatisfactory conduct as defined in the Act, as it involves making a statement that the licensee knows is misleading or deceptive. The primary duty to act in the client’s best interest under Rule 6.2 does not provide a justification for breaching these fundamental ethical obligations owed to all parties in a transaction.
Incorrect
The core issue in this scenario revolves around the licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, it tests the balance between a licensee’s duty to their client (the vendor) and their duty to a customer (the purchaser). While licensees are expected to use their skills to secure a favorable outcome for their client, these actions must not contravene their professional duties of honesty, fairness, and transparency. The use of an urgency closing technique is permissible only when the information conveyed is accurate and truthful. In this case, the licensee has materially exaggerated a casual enquiry, transforming it into a competing offer that is imminent. This constitutes misleading conduct. The statement is not a factual representation of the situation and is designed to place the purchaser under undue pressure to make a decision. This action directly conflicts with the licensee’s obligation under Rule 6.4 to treat customers with fairness and honesty. It also falls under the umbrella of unsatisfactory conduct as defined in the Act, as it involves making a statement that the licensee knows is misleading or deceptive. The primary duty to act in the client’s best interest under Rule 6.2 does not provide a justification for breaching these fundamental ethical obligations owed to all parties in a transaction.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The following case study explores the complexities of terminating a sole agency agreement. Anaru engaged licensee Keira under a 90-day sole agency agreement to sell his property. The agreement contained a clause stating that if the property was sold within six months after the termination of the agreement to any person introduced by Keira, she would be entitled to the commission. After 60 days, frustrated with the lack of offers, Anaru sent Keira an email stating the agreement was terminated immediately. Keira replied, acknowledging receipt of his termination notice. Fifteen days later, Anaru signed a new agency agreement with another licensee, Ben. Ben conducted an open home, which was attended by Chloe. Chloe had previously been shown through the property by Keira during the initial sole agency period but had not made an offer at that time. Ben successfully negotiated a sale to Chloe. What is the most likely outcome regarding commission entitlement based on these events?
Correct
The determination of commission entitlement in this scenario involves a multi-step analysis of contract law and real estate agency principles. First, the validity and effect of the termination must be assessed. Anaru, the vendor, unilaterally revoked the agency agreement. While this may constitute a breach of the 90-day term, Keira’s acknowledgement of the termination email likely signifies acceptance, effectively ending the agreement by mutual consent or acquiescence. Second, the introduction clause, also known as a carry-over clause, must be examined. This is a standard contractual term in agency agreements. Its purpose is to protect the agent’s right to a commission if the property is sold to a person they introduced during their agency period, for a specified time after the agency terminates. In this case, Chloe was introduced to the property by Keira. The sale occurred within the 6-month post-termination period stipulated in the clause. Therefore, despite the termination and the fact that another agent finalised the sale, Keira has a strong contractual claim for the commission based on her initial introduction of the successful purchaser. This situation highlights a critical risk for vendors: terminating one agreement and signing another can lead to liability for two commissions—one to the new agent who was the effective cause of sale, and one to the original agent based on the introduction clause. The dispute would hinge on the precise wording of the clause and the facts of the introduction, but the most probable outcome is that Keira’s claim is contractually valid.
Incorrect
The determination of commission entitlement in this scenario involves a multi-step analysis of contract law and real estate agency principles. First, the validity and effect of the termination must be assessed. Anaru, the vendor, unilaterally revoked the agency agreement. While this may constitute a breach of the 90-day term, Keira’s acknowledgement of the termination email likely signifies acceptance, effectively ending the agreement by mutual consent or acquiescence. Second, the introduction clause, also known as a carry-over clause, must be examined. This is a standard contractual term in agency agreements. Its purpose is to protect the agent’s right to a commission if the property is sold to a person they introduced during their agency period, for a specified time after the agency terminates. In this case, Chloe was introduced to the property by Keira. The sale occurred within the 6-month post-termination period stipulated in the clause. Therefore, despite the termination and the fact that another agent finalised the sale, Keira has a strong contractual claim for the commission based on her initial introduction of the successful purchaser. This situation highlights a critical risk for vendors: terminating one agreement and signing another can lead to liability for two commissions—one to the new agent who was the effective cause of sale, and one to the original agent based on the introduction clause. The dispute would hinge on the precise wording of the clause and the facts of the introduction, but the most probable outcome is that Keira’s claim is contractually valid.