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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
An assessment of a dispute at the ‘Kauri Landing’ unit title development reveals a conflict. The Body Corporate has a registered operational rule prohibiting the installation of any fixtures, including heat pumps, on exterior walls to maintain aesthetic consistency. Anika, an owner-occupier with a documented respiratory condition, has formally requested an exemption to install a heat pump, providing a letter from her medical specialist. The Body Corporate committee has formally denied her request, stating the rule must be applied uniformly to all owners. A licensee is discussing this ongoing dispute with a prospective purchaser for a different unit in the same complex. What is the most legally accurate assessment of this situation that the licensee should understand to inform their discussion?
Correct
The core of this issue lies in the interpretation and application of a Body Corporate’s operational rules under the Unit Titles Act 2010. The logical deduction proceeds as follows. First, we must assess the validity of the Body Corporate’s rule. While a Body Corporate has the power under section 105 of the Act to make operational rules for the control, management, and administration of the units and common property, these rules are not absolute. Section 106 stipulates that rules must not be inconsistent with the Act or any other enactment, and must not be unreasonable or oppressive. A blanket prohibition on heat pumps could be challenged as unreasonable, particularly when it negatively impacts an owner’s health and wellbeing. Second, we identify the appropriate dispute resolution pathway. The Unit Titles Act 2010, specifically under Part 4, establishes a dispute resolution process. For disputes of this nature, concerning the application of operational rules and claims of unreasonable conduct by the Body Corporate, the Tenancy Tribunal is designated as the primary jurisdiction. The Tribunal has the authority to make various orders, including requiring a Body Corporate to do something or to stop doing something, or declaring that a rule is invalid or does not apply to a particular person. Therefore, Anika is not without recourse. Her medically supported need provides strong grounds to argue that the rule’s application to her is unreasonable. The Body Corporate’s refusal to grant an exception, despite the evidence, strengthens her case for seeking an order from the Tenancy Tribunal. The High Court is generally reserved for more complex legal matters or appeals, and while human rights issues may be relevant, the direct and prescribed statutory remedy is via the Tribunal.
Incorrect
The core of this issue lies in the interpretation and application of a Body Corporate’s operational rules under the Unit Titles Act 2010. The logical deduction proceeds as follows. First, we must assess the validity of the Body Corporate’s rule. While a Body Corporate has the power under section 105 of the Act to make operational rules for the control, management, and administration of the units and common property, these rules are not absolute. Section 106 stipulates that rules must not be inconsistent with the Act or any other enactment, and must not be unreasonable or oppressive. A blanket prohibition on heat pumps could be challenged as unreasonable, particularly when it negatively impacts an owner’s health and wellbeing. Second, we identify the appropriate dispute resolution pathway. The Unit Titles Act 2010, specifically under Part 4, establishes a dispute resolution process. For disputes of this nature, concerning the application of operational rules and claims of unreasonable conduct by the Body Corporate, the Tenancy Tribunal is designated as the primary jurisdiction. The Tribunal has the authority to make various orders, including requiring a Body Corporate to do something or to stop doing something, or declaring that a rule is invalid or does not apply to a particular person. Therefore, Anika is not without recourse. Her medically supported need provides strong grounds to argue that the rule’s application to her is unreasonable. The Body Corporate’s refusal to grant an exception, despite the evidence, strengthens her case for seeking an order from the Tenancy Tribunal. The High Court is generally reserved for more complex legal matters or appeals, and while human rights issues may be relevant, the direct and prescribed statutory remedy is via the Tribunal.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
An assessment of New Zealand’s real estate regulatory history reveals a significant philosophical shift between the Estate Agents Act 1976 and the subsequent Real Estate Agents Act 2008. Imagine a senior agent, Matiu, is mentoring a newly licensed agent, Chloe. Matiu reflects on his early career in the 1990s, stating, “Back then, the industry largely policed itself. Our main governing body was composed of our peers, and while there were rules, the oversight felt very different from the independent government authority we have today.” Which of the following statements most accurately captures the fundamental regulatory principle Matiu is describing under the 1976 Act?
Correct
The core regulatory principle of the Estate Agents Act 1976 was industry self-regulation. Under this legislative framework, the primary responsibility for governing the conduct of real estate agents, including the issuance of licenses and the handling of disciplinary matters, was delegated to the Real Estate Institute of New Zealand (REINZ). REINZ is an industry membership body, meaning it is run by and for real estate professionals. This structure placed the oversight of the profession largely in the hands of the practitioners themselves. While this model had mechanisms for setting standards and disciplining members, it was fundamentally different from the system that replaced it. The main criticism of this self-regulatory model was the potential for, or perception of, a conflict of interest, where the body tasked with advancing the commercial interests of the industry was also responsible for policing it. This concern was a significant catalyst for the legislative reforms that resulted in the Real Estate Agents Act 2008. The 2008 Act deliberately moved away from this model by establishing the Real Estate Agents Authority (now the Real Estate Authority or REA), an independent Crown entity, to provide oversight and regulation that was separate from the industry’s representative body. This change was intended to increase public confidence and ensure that regulatory and disciplinary functions were carried out impartially.
Incorrect
The core regulatory principle of the Estate Agents Act 1976 was industry self-regulation. Under this legislative framework, the primary responsibility for governing the conduct of real estate agents, including the issuance of licenses and the handling of disciplinary matters, was delegated to the Real Estate Institute of New Zealand (REINZ). REINZ is an industry membership body, meaning it is run by and for real estate professionals. This structure placed the oversight of the profession largely in the hands of the practitioners themselves. While this model had mechanisms for setting standards and disciplining members, it was fundamentally different from the system that replaced it. The main criticism of this self-regulatory model was the potential for, or perception of, a conflict of interest, where the body tasked with advancing the commercial interests of the industry was also responsible for policing it. This concern was a significant catalyst for the legislative reforms that resulted in the Real Estate Agents Act 2008. The 2008 Act deliberately moved away from this model by establishing the Real Estate Agents Authority (now the Real Estate Authority or REA), an independent Crown entity, to provide oversight and regulation that was separate from the industry’s representative body. This change was intended to increase public confidence and ensure that regulatory and disciplinary functions were carried out impartially.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
An assessment of a complaint lodged with the Real Estate Authority against a licensee, Matiu, is conducted by a Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC). The CAC concludes its investigation and finds there is reasonable cause to believe that Matiu’s actions constitute ‘misconduct’ under section 73 of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, rather than the lesser offence of ‘unsatisfactory conduct’. According to the Act, what is the required course of action for the CAC to take at this point?
Correct
Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, there is a clear distinction between the roles and powers of a Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) and the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal (READT). The CAC is primarily responsible for investigating complaints against licensees. It determines whether a complaint should be pursued and, if so, whether the licensee’s actions constitute unsatisfactory conduct or the more serious charge of misconduct. Unsatisfactory conduct is defined in section 72 of the Act and includes conduct that falls short of the standard expected of a reasonably competent licensee. For a finding of unsatisfactory conduct, a CAC has a range of powers under section 93, such as issuing a censure, ordering an apology, or imposing a fine of up to $10,000 on an individual licensee. However, misconduct, as defined in section 73, involves more serious actions, such as disgraceful conduct or a willful or reckless contravention of the rules. When a CAC, after its investigation, forms the view that a licensee may be guilty of misconduct, its procedural path is strictly mandated by section 91 of the Act. The CAC does not have the authority to impose penalties for misconduct itself. Instead, it is required to lay a formal charge against the licensee before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal. The Tribunal is the appropriate body to hear charges of misconduct and has greater punitive powers, including the ability to suspend or cancel a license and impose higher fines. Therefore, the CAC’s role in such a case is to escalate the matter to the higher disciplinary body.
Incorrect
Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, there is a clear distinction between the roles and powers of a Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) and the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal (READT). The CAC is primarily responsible for investigating complaints against licensees. It determines whether a complaint should be pursued and, if so, whether the licensee’s actions constitute unsatisfactory conduct or the more serious charge of misconduct. Unsatisfactory conduct is defined in section 72 of the Act and includes conduct that falls short of the standard expected of a reasonably competent licensee. For a finding of unsatisfactory conduct, a CAC has a range of powers under section 93, such as issuing a censure, ordering an apology, or imposing a fine of up to $10,000 on an individual licensee. However, misconduct, as defined in section 73, involves more serious actions, such as disgraceful conduct or a willful or reckless contravention of the rules. When a CAC, after its investigation, forms the view that a licensee may be guilty of misconduct, its procedural path is strictly mandated by section 91 of the Act. The CAC does not have the authority to impose penalties for misconduct itself. Instead, it is required to lay a formal charge against the licensee before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal. The Tribunal is the appropriate body to hear charges of misconduct and has greater punitive powers, including the ability to suspend or cancel a license and impose higher fines. Therefore, the CAC’s role in such a case is to escalate the matter to the higher disciplinary body.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
An agent, Hana, is preparing a current market appraisal for a property in Ponsonby. She identifies three comparable sales: 1. A property on the same street, sold last month, nearly identical in size and condition. 2. A property in a neighbouring block, sold three months ago, which is smaller and required a significant positive adjustment for its inferior condition. 3. A property of similar size, sold two months ago, but located in the less-fashionable adjacent suburb of Grey Lynn, requiring a substantial location-based adjustment. After making all necessary monetary adjustments to the sale prices of these three comparables, what is the most professionally sound method for Hana to determine the final appraisal value for the subject property?
Correct
The reconciled value is determined by applying a weighted average to the adjusted prices of the comparable properties. Let’s assume the following adjusted prices after accounting for differences: Comparable 1 (most similar): $960,000 Comparable 2 (needs moderate adjustment): $945,000 Comparable 3 (least similar, needs significant adjustment): $975,000 A licensee would assign weights based on their professional judgment of each comparable’s relevance. For instance: Weight for Comparable 1: 60% (0.6) Weight for Comparable 2: 25% (0.25) Weight for Comparable 3: 15% (0.15) The calculation for the weighted reconciled value is: \[ (\text{Adjusted Price}_1 \times \text{Weight}_1) + (\text{Adjusted Price}_2 \times \text{Weight}_2) + (\text{Adjusted Price}_3 \times \text{Weight}_3) \] \[ (\$960,000 \times 0.60) + (\$945,000 \times 0.25) + (\$975,000 \times 0.15) \] \[ \$576,000 + \$236,250 + \$146,250 = \$958,500 \] This final figure is the reconciled market appraisal. In preparing a current market appraisal, a licensee must adhere to the principles of professional competence outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. The process involves more than a simple mathematical calculation. After selecting the most appropriate comparable properties and making justifiable monetary adjustments for any material differences between them and the subject property, the final and most critical step is reconciliation. Reconciliation is not about finding a simple average of the adjusted prices. Instead, it is an analytical process where the licensee applies their professional judgment to give more significance, or weight, to the comparables that are most similar to the subject property and required the fewest or smallest adjustments. A property that is nearly identical and sold very recently on the same street would receive a much higher weighting than an older sale with significant differences requiring large, subjective adjustments. This weighted analysis results in a single, substantiated figure or a tight price range that is more defensible and realistic than a simple average, reflecting a true synthesis of the available market data.
Incorrect
The reconciled value is determined by applying a weighted average to the adjusted prices of the comparable properties. Let’s assume the following adjusted prices after accounting for differences: Comparable 1 (most similar): $960,000 Comparable 2 (needs moderate adjustment): $945,000 Comparable 3 (least similar, needs significant adjustment): $975,000 A licensee would assign weights based on their professional judgment of each comparable’s relevance. For instance: Weight for Comparable 1: 60% (0.6) Weight for Comparable 2: 25% (0.25) Weight for Comparable 3: 15% (0.15) The calculation for the weighted reconciled value is: \[ (\text{Adjusted Price}_1 \times \text{Weight}_1) + (\text{Adjusted Price}_2 \times \text{Weight}_2) + (\text{Adjusted Price}_3 \times \text{Weight}_3) \] \[ (\$960,000 \times 0.60) + (\$945,000 \times 0.25) + (\$975,000 \times 0.15) \] \[ \$576,000 + \$236,250 + \$146,250 = \$958,500 \] This final figure is the reconciled market appraisal. In preparing a current market appraisal, a licensee must adhere to the principles of professional competence outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. The process involves more than a simple mathematical calculation. After selecting the most appropriate comparable properties and making justifiable monetary adjustments for any material differences between them and the subject property, the final and most critical step is reconciliation. Reconciliation is not about finding a simple average of the adjusted prices. Instead, it is an analytical process where the licensee applies their professional judgment to give more significance, or weight, to the comparables that are most similar to the subject property and required the fewest or smallest adjustments. A property that is nearly identical and sold very recently on the same street would receive a much higher weighting than an older sale with significant differences requiring large, subjective adjustments. This weighted analysis results in a single, substantiated figure or a tight price range that is more defensible and realistic than a simple average, reflecting a true synthesis of the available market data.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider a scenario where Matiu, a real estate licensee, is representing a vendor for a property in Napier. He receives a written offer from a prospective buyer who is represented by Anika, a licensee from a competing agency. A day earlier, Matiu inadvertently overheard a conversation at a local cafe suggesting the same prospective buyer was having significant financial difficulties. Matiu has no way to verify this information. What course of action most appropriately balances Matiu’s professional obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Conduct and Client Care Rules?
Correct
The core of this scenario revolves around balancing a licensee’s duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. The primary duty of a licensee is to act in the best interests of their client, as stipulated by Rule 6.2. However, this duty is not absolute and must be exercised in conjunction with other professional obligations. Rule 9.5 mandates that a licensee must submit all written offers to the client. Therefore, withholding the offer is not an option. Furthermore, Rule 9.1 requires a licensee not to engage in any conduct that would bring the industry into disrepute, and Rule 9.2 requires treating all parties to a transaction honestly and fairly. Acting on unverified information overheard in a public place could be considered unprofessional and unfair to the buyer and their agent. The most professional course of action involves fulfilling the duty to the client by presenting the offer while also exercising the required skill, care, and competence under Rule 5.1. This means advising the client on the potential risks inherent in any offer and suggesting ways to mitigate them. A standard and effective way to manage the risk of a buyer’s finance falling through is to include a finance condition in the sale and purchase agreement. This protects the vendor’s interests based on sound contractual practice rather than unsubstantiated gossip, thereby upholding professional integrity and ensuring fairness to all involved parties.
Incorrect
The core of this scenario revolves around balancing a licensee’s duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. The primary duty of a licensee is to act in the best interests of their client, as stipulated by Rule 6.2. However, this duty is not absolute and must be exercised in conjunction with other professional obligations. Rule 9.5 mandates that a licensee must submit all written offers to the client. Therefore, withholding the offer is not an option. Furthermore, Rule 9.1 requires a licensee not to engage in any conduct that would bring the industry into disrepute, and Rule 9.2 requires treating all parties to a transaction honestly and fairly. Acting on unverified information overheard in a public place could be considered unprofessional and unfair to the buyer and their agent. The most professional course of action involves fulfilling the duty to the client by presenting the offer while also exercising the required skill, care, and competence under Rule 5.1. This means advising the client on the potential risks inherent in any offer and suggesting ways to mitigate them. A standard and effective way to manage the risk of a buyer’s finance falling through is to include a finance condition in the sale and purchase agreement. This protects the vendor’s interests based on sound contractual practice rather than unsubstantiated gossip, thereby upholding professional integrity and ensuring fairness to all involved parties.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
An assessment of a proposed development site is being undertaken by Anaru, a licensed agent, for his client, Kauri Developments Ltd. The client is interested in a large coastal property in the Whangārei District, which is zoned ‘Rural Production’ under the operative Whangārei District Plan. However, a detailed review of the Northland Regional Policy Statement reveals the entire property falls within a designated Significant Natural Area (SNA) due to its proximity to a fragile estuarine ecosystem. Kauri Developments intends to apply for resource consent to construct a large-scale tourist lodge. From the perspective of the Resource Management Act 1991, what is the most critical regulatory challenge Anaru must advise his client will face in seeking a resource consent for this project?
Correct
The core of this problem lies in understanding the hierarchy of planning instruments under the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA). The RMA establishes a framework where national and regional policies guide local planning. A Regional Policy Statement (RPS), issued by a Regional Council, sets out the broad objectives and policies for managing the region’s resources. A District Plan, issued by a Territorial Authority (a District or City Council), must “give effect to” the RPS. This means the District Plan’s rules cannot be inconsistent with the overarching regional policy. In this scenario, the Northland Regional Policy Statement has designated the area as a Significant Natural Area (SNA). This designation carries significant weight and imposes strong protective policies to avoid adverse effects on the specified ecological values. While the Whangārei District Plan’s ‘Rural Production’ zoning might have rules that could otherwise permit some form of development, these are subordinate to the RPS. Therefore, any resource consent application will be primarily assessed against the stringent objectives and policies of the RPS concerning the protection of the SNA. The fundamental conflict is not merely about the activity’s status under the district rules but about its direct opposition to the higher-order, legally binding regional policy for that specific, sensitive location. An agent’s advice must prioritize this overriding constraint, as it is the most likely reason for a consent authority to decline the application, regardless of how well other aspects like wastewater or public consultation are managed.
Incorrect
The core of this problem lies in understanding the hierarchy of planning instruments under the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA). The RMA establishes a framework where national and regional policies guide local planning. A Regional Policy Statement (RPS), issued by a Regional Council, sets out the broad objectives and policies for managing the region’s resources. A District Plan, issued by a Territorial Authority (a District or City Council), must “give effect to” the RPS. This means the District Plan’s rules cannot be inconsistent with the overarching regional policy. In this scenario, the Northland Regional Policy Statement has designated the area as a Significant Natural Area (SNA). This designation carries significant weight and imposes strong protective policies to avoid adverse effects on the specified ecological values. While the Whangārei District Plan’s ‘Rural Production’ zoning might have rules that could otherwise permit some form of development, these are subordinate to the RPS. Therefore, any resource consent application will be primarily assessed against the stringent objectives and policies of the RPS concerning the protection of the SNA. The fundamental conflict is not merely about the activity’s status under the district rules but about its direct opposition to the higher-order, legally binding regional policy for that specific, sensitive location. An agent’s advice must prioritize this overriding constraint, as it is the most likely reason for a consent authority to decline the application, regardless of how well other aspects like wastewater or public consultation are managed.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Anaru, a licensed agent, is preparing a market appraisal for a unique property in a remote part of the Tararua Range. The property is a recently decommissioned, purpose-built meteorological research station. It features highly specialized construction, has no rental history, and no similar properties have ever been sold in New Zealand. A potential buyer intends to convert it into a luxury tourist lodge. Considering the unique characteristics of the property and the principles of valuation, which approach provides the most defensible and logical basis for Anaru’s initial appraisal?
Correct
The determination of the most appropriate valuation method in this scenario is based on a logical process of elimination, not a numerical calculation. Step 1: Analyze the subject property. The property is a highly specialized, non-income-generating asset (a decommissioned meteorological station) with no direct market equivalents. Step 2: Assess the viability of the Sales Comparison Approach. This method requires recent sales data of similar, or “comparable,” properties. Given the unique nature of a meteorological station, no such comparables exist. Therefore, this approach is not credible. Step 3: Assess the viability of the Income Capitalization Approach. This method derives value from a property’s ability to generate a stable net operating income. The station has no history of income generation. Valuing it based on a potential buyer’s speculative future business plan is not a valid application of this method for an as-is appraisal, as the capitalization rate would be impossible to substantiate from market data. Step 4: Assess the viability of the Cost Approach. This method values a property based on the cost to replace the improvements, less accrued depreciation, plus the value of the land. For a unique property with no comparables and no income stream, this is the only logical and defensible method. It allows for a systematic valuation of the physical components, even though estimating functional obsolescence will be a significant challenge. Conclusion: The Cost Approach is the primary and most reliable methodology. In property valuation, the selection of the appropriate method is critical for a credible and defensible appraisal, a principle aligned with the professional standards expected under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008. There are three primary approaches: Sales Comparison, Income Capitalization, and Cost. The Sales Comparison Approach is most effective for properties where ample data from recent sales of similar properties exists, such as standard residential homes. The Income Capitalization Approach is designed specifically for properties that generate rental income, like commercial office buildings or apartment blocks, as it converts the net operating income into a present value. For unique, special-purpose properties that are not income-producing and have no market comparables, the Cost Approach becomes the most suitable method. This approach determines value by calculating the current cost of replacing the building and other improvements, subtracting any depreciation from physical deterioration, functional obsolescence, or external economic factors, and then adding the market value of the land as if it were vacant. In the given scenario, the meteorological station’s uniqueness and lack of income history render the other two methods unreliable, leaving the Cost Approach as the only viable option to establish a baseline value.
Incorrect
The determination of the most appropriate valuation method in this scenario is based on a logical process of elimination, not a numerical calculation. Step 1: Analyze the subject property. The property is a highly specialized, non-income-generating asset (a decommissioned meteorological station) with no direct market equivalents. Step 2: Assess the viability of the Sales Comparison Approach. This method requires recent sales data of similar, or “comparable,” properties. Given the unique nature of a meteorological station, no such comparables exist. Therefore, this approach is not credible. Step 3: Assess the viability of the Income Capitalization Approach. This method derives value from a property’s ability to generate a stable net operating income. The station has no history of income generation. Valuing it based on a potential buyer’s speculative future business plan is not a valid application of this method for an as-is appraisal, as the capitalization rate would be impossible to substantiate from market data. Step 4: Assess the viability of the Cost Approach. This method values a property based on the cost to replace the improvements, less accrued depreciation, plus the value of the land. For a unique property with no comparables and no income stream, this is the only logical and defensible method. It allows for a systematic valuation of the physical components, even though estimating functional obsolescence will be a significant challenge. Conclusion: The Cost Approach is the primary and most reliable methodology. In property valuation, the selection of the appropriate method is critical for a credible and defensible appraisal, a principle aligned with the professional standards expected under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008. There are three primary approaches: Sales Comparison, Income Capitalization, and Cost. The Sales Comparison Approach is most effective for properties where ample data from recent sales of similar properties exists, such as standard residential homes. The Income Capitalization Approach is designed specifically for properties that generate rental income, like commercial office buildings or apartment blocks, as it converts the net operating income into a present value. For unique, special-purpose properties that are not income-producing and have no market comparables, the Cost Approach becomes the most suitable method. This approach determines value by calculating the current cost of replacing the building and other improvements, subtracting any depreciation from physical deterioration, functional obsolescence, or external economic factors, and then adding the market value of the land as if it were vacant. In the given scenario, the meteorological station’s uniqueness and lack of income history render the other two methods unreliable, leaving the Cost Approach as the only viable option to establish a baseline value.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Anja is the agent for the sale of a 200-hectare coastal farm. A European investment consortium has presented a very attractive, unconditional cash offer. During her due diligence, Anja discovers that a small portion of the farm is leased to a telecommunications company, which operates a critical satellite uplink facility providing essential data services to remote parts of New Zealand. Considering the requirements of the Overseas Investment Act 2005, what is the most critical risk factor that Anja must advise her vendor about regarding the viability of this specific offer?
Correct
The scenario involves an overseas investment consortium acquiring sensitive land that also contains a strategically important asset. The logical deduction process is as follows: 1. The buyer, a European investment consortium, is an ‘overseas person’ as defined by the Overseas Investment Act 2005. 2. The property, a 200-hectare coastal farm, is ‘sensitive land’ under the Act due to its area and location. This automatically requires consent from the Overseas Investment Office (OIO). 3. The presence of a critical telecommunications asset (the satellite uplink) on the land makes the transaction subject to an additional layer of scrutiny. This asset falls under the category of ‘strategically important assets’. 4. Transactions involving such assets trigger the National Interest Test, as outlined in Part 2, Subpart 3 of the Act. 5. While the ‘Benefit to New Zealand Test’ and the ‘Investor Test’ are standard components of an OIO application for sensitive land, the National Interest Test is a separate, overriding consideration. 6. This test is conducted by the responsible Government Minister, not the OIO, and assesses whether the investment is contrary to New Zealand’s national interest, considering factors like national security, public order, and international relations. 7. A Minister can block a transaction on national interest grounds even if the OIO determines that it satisfies the Benefit to New Zealand Test. This ministerial power represents the most significant and unpredictable hurdle for the transaction, and therefore the greatest risk to the vendor achieving a successful sale. The agent’s primary duty is to ensure the vendor understands this ultimate, non-delegable point of potential failure. The Overseas Investment Act 2005 governs investments made by overseas persons in sensitive New Zealand assets. An ‘overseas person’ includes companies with more than 25% overseas ownership. Land is often deemed ‘sensitive’ based on its size, type, or location, such as being rural land over 5 hectares or adjoining certain types of reserve or the foreshore. Any acquisition of sensitive land by an overseas person requires consent from the Overseas Investment Office. The standard application involves satisfying the ‘Investor Test’, which assesses the investor’s character and business acumen, and the ‘Benefit to New Zealand Test’, which requires the investment to provide substantial and identifiable benefits across various economic, environmental, or social factors. However, for a subset of transactions involving ‘strategically important assets’ like critical infrastructure in telecommunications, ports, or electricity, a further ‘National Interest Test’ is applied. This is not a test of benefit but a protective assessment of risk. The ultimate decision under this test rests with a Government Minister, who can prohibit the investment if it is deemed contrary to New Zealand’s core interests. This ministerial discretion is a paramount consideration as it can override any positive findings from the OIO on other aspects of the application.
Incorrect
The scenario involves an overseas investment consortium acquiring sensitive land that also contains a strategically important asset. The logical deduction process is as follows: 1. The buyer, a European investment consortium, is an ‘overseas person’ as defined by the Overseas Investment Act 2005. 2. The property, a 200-hectare coastal farm, is ‘sensitive land’ under the Act due to its area and location. This automatically requires consent from the Overseas Investment Office (OIO). 3. The presence of a critical telecommunications asset (the satellite uplink) on the land makes the transaction subject to an additional layer of scrutiny. This asset falls under the category of ‘strategically important assets’. 4. Transactions involving such assets trigger the National Interest Test, as outlined in Part 2, Subpart 3 of the Act. 5. While the ‘Benefit to New Zealand Test’ and the ‘Investor Test’ are standard components of an OIO application for sensitive land, the National Interest Test is a separate, overriding consideration. 6. This test is conducted by the responsible Government Minister, not the OIO, and assesses whether the investment is contrary to New Zealand’s national interest, considering factors like national security, public order, and international relations. 7. A Minister can block a transaction on national interest grounds even if the OIO determines that it satisfies the Benefit to New Zealand Test. This ministerial power represents the most significant and unpredictable hurdle for the transaction, and therefore the greatest risk to the vendor achieving a successful sale. The agent’s primary duty is to ensure the vendor understands this ultimate, non-delegable point of potential failure. The Overseas Investment Act 2005 governs investments made by overseas persons in sensitive New Zealand assets. An ‘overseas person’ includes companies with more than 25% overseas ownership. Land is often deemed ‘sensitive’ based on its size, type, or location, such as being rural land over 5 hectares or adjoining certain types of reserve or the foreshore. Any acquisition of sensitive land by an overseas person requires consent from the Overseas Investment Office. The standard application involves satisfying the ‘Investor Test’, which assesses the investor’s character and business acumen, and the ‘Benefit to New Zealand Test’, which requires the investment to provide substantial and identifiable benefits across various economic, environmental, or social factors. However, for a subset of transactions involving ‘strategically important assets’ like critical infrastructure in telecommunications, ports, or electricity, a further ‘National Interest Test’ is applied. This is not a test of benefit but a protective assessment of risk. The ultimate decision under this test rests with a Government Minister, who can prohibit the investment if it is deemed contrary to New Zealand’s core interests. This ministerial discretion is a paramount consideration as it can override any positive findings from the OIO on other aspects of the application.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
An assessment of a recent property transaction involving agent Aroha reveals a complex ethical situation. Aroha was engaged by the Chen family to sell their large residential property. After a month of marketing, a reputable property development company submitted a strong offer. Aroha’s spouse, Liam, is employed by this development company as a project manager. Liam holds no shares in the company, is not on the board of directors, and had no involvement in the decision to make an offer on the Chen family’s property. Given this specific context, what is Aroha’s primary obligation under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012?
Correct
The core issue in this scenario is the management of a potential or perceived conflict of interest under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. The agent, Aroha, has a personal relationship (her spouse) with an employee of the company that is a potential purchaser. Even though the spouse, Liam, has no direct financial stake or decision-making power in this specific transaction, the relationship itself creates a potential conflict of interest. Under the REA Code of Conduct, a licensee’s primary duty is to act in the best interests of their client. This includes the duty of loyalty and the duty of disclosure. Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to act in the best interests of a client, and Rule 6.2 requires them to deal with clients and customers honestly and fairly. Furthermore, Rule 9 is explicit about client and customer care, and the principles underlying it demand transparency regarding any matter that could affect the agent’s ability to provide impartial advice. The existence of the relationship, regardless of its materiality, could be perceived by the client or others as potentially influencing Aroha’s actions, for example, her negotiation strategy. Therefore, Aroha’s immediate and primary professional obligation is to disclose this relationship to her clients, the Chen family. This disclosure must be made clearly and in writing, outlining the nature of the relationship. The purpose of this disclosure is to allow the client to be fully informed of the situation and to provide their consent to continue with Aroha as their agent in this negotiation. By disclosing the potential conflict, Aroha upholds her fiduciary duties of loyalty and transparency, protects her clients’ interests, and maintains the integrity required by the profession. Proceeding without disclosure, or only disclosing to the other party, would be a breach of her obligations to her client.
Incorrect
The core issue in this scenario is the management of a potential or perceived conflict of interest under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. The agent, Aroha, has a personal relationship (her spouse) with an employee of the company that is a potential purchaser. Even though the spouse, Liam, has no direct financial stake or decision-making power in this specific transaction, the relationship itself creates a potential conflict of interest. Under the REA Code of Conduct, a licensee’s primary duty is to act in the best interests of their client. This includes the duty of loyalty and the duty of disclosure. Rule 6.4 requires a licensee to act in the best interests of a client, and Rule 6.2 requires them to deal with clients and customers honestly and fairly. Furthermore, Rule 9 is explicit about client and customer care, and the principles underlying it demand transparency regarding any matter that could affect the agent’s ability to provide impartial advice. The existence of the relationship, regardless of its materiality, could be perceived by the client or others as potentially influencing Aroha’s actions, for example, her negotiation strategy. Therefore, Aroha’s immediate and primary professional obligation is to disclose this relationship to her clients, the Chen family. This disclosure must be made clearly and in writing, outlining the nature of the relationship. The purpose of this disclosure is to allow the client to be fully informed of the situation and to provide their consent to continue with Aroha as their agent in this negotiation. By disclosing the potential conflict, Aroha upholds her fiduciary duties of loyalty and transparency, protects her clients’ interests, and maintains the integrity required by the profession. Proceeding without disclosure, or only disclosing to the other party, would be a breach of her obligations to her client.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Anika, a licensee, holds a signed buyer’s agency agreement with her client, Ben. Ben identifies a property he is keen to make an offer on. Upon investigation, Anika discovers the property is listed exclusively by Carlos, another licensee working for the very same real estate agency. To ensure compliance with her obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Conduct and Client Care Rules, what is the most critical and immediate action Anika must take?
Correct
The scenario involves a potential conflict of interest within a single real estate agency, a situation governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. In this case, Anika has a buyer’s agency agreement, establishing a clear fiduciary duty to her client, Ben. Simultaneously, her colleague Carlos has a listing agreement with the vendor, establishing a fiduciary duty to the seller. When Ben wishes to pursue a property listed by Carlos, the agency is effectively on both sides of the transaction. According to the Rules, particularly those concerning conflicts of interest and acting for more than one party, the paramount obligation is to ensure transparency and obtain informed consent. Anika’s primary professional and legal responsibility, before taking any further steps like presenting an offer, is to disclose this dual representation situation in writing to her client, Ben. Similarly, Carlos must disclose this to the vendor. Both clients must be made aware that the agency represents both parties and must provide their written consent to proceed with this arrangement. This disclosure must be clear about the nature of the relationship and how the agency will manage the inherent conflict to ensure both clients’ interests are protected. Failing to obtain this explicit, informed consent before proceeding would be a breach of fiduciary duties and the Code of Conduct. The principle of informed consent underpins the entire process, ensuring that clients are not unknowingly placed in a compromised position.
Incorrect
The scenario involves a potential conflict of interest within a single real estate agency, a situation governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. In this case, Anika has a buyer’s agency agreement, establishing a clear fiduciary duty to her client, Ben. Simultaneously, her colleague Carlos has a listing agreement with the vendor, establishing a fiduciary duty to the seller. When Ben wishes to pursue a property listed by Carlos, the agency is effectively on both sides of the transaction. According to the Rules, particularly those concerning conflicts of interest and acting for more than one party, the paramount obligation is to ensure transparency and obtain informed consent. Anika’s primary professional and legal responsibility, before taking any further steps like presenting an offer, is to disclose this dual representation situation in writing to her client, Ben. Similarly, Carlos must disclose this to the vendor. Both clients must be made aware that the agency represents both parties and must provide their written consent to proceed with this arrangement. This disclosure must be clear about the nature of the relationship and how the agency will manage the inherent conflict to ensure both clients’ interests are protected. Failing to obtain this explicit, informed consent before proceeding would be a breach of fiduciary duties and the Code of Conduct. The principle of informed consent underpins the entire process, ensuring that clients are not unknowingly placed in a compromised position.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Assessment of a licensee’s conduct in a specific transaction reveals a conflict between a client’s stated preference and the agent’s professional duties. An agent, Hinemoa, is representing Mr. Davies, a vendor who is relocating for work and has emphasised his priority is a “fast, no-fuss sale” for his property. The property is listed with a comprehensive marketing plan, including an open home scheduled for the upcoming weekend. Before the first open home, Hinemoa receives a strong, unconditional cash offer that is within the lower end of the property’s appraised value but satisfies Mr. Davies’s minimum price. Given her duty of care, what is the most appropriate action for Hinemoa to take?
Correct
A licensee’s fundamental duty under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 is to act in the best interests of their client. This overarching obligation, detailed in Rule 6.1, requires the licensee to strive for the best possible outcome for the client, which in the context of a sale typically means obtaining the highest possible price. This duty must be balanced with other key obligations, such as effective communication and following client instructions. In this scenario, the client has expressed a desire for a quick, uncomplicated sale. However, an experienced licensee should recognise that this desire might be based on anxiety rather than a complete understanding of the market potential. Simply recommending the acceptance of an early offer, even if it meets the client’s minimum expectation, may not fulfill the duty to act in their best interests if there is a strong likelihood of achieving a better result through the planned marketing campaign. The correct professional conduct involves a comprehensive communication strategy. The licensee is obligated under Rule 10.2 to present all written offers to the client without delay. Crucially, this presentation must be accompanied by expert advice. The licensee must clearly explain the advantages of the current offer, such as its unconditional nature and the speed of settlement, which align with the client’s stated wishes. Simultaneously, they must explain the potential disadvantages, specifically that accepting the offer forgoes the opportunity to generate competitive interest and a potentially higher price from the upcoming open home. This allows the client to weigh the certainty of the current offer against the potential of a better future outcome, thereby empowering them to make a fully informed decision that truly reflects their best interests. The final choice rests with the client, but it must be based on a complete and unbiased presentation of all relevant factors and strategic possibilities.
Incorrect
A licensee’s fundamental duty under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 is to act in the best interests of their client. This overarching obligation, detailed in Rule 6.1, requires the licensee to strive for the best possible outcome for the client, which in the context of a sale typically means obtaining the highest possible price. This duty must be balanced with other key obligations, such as effective communication and following client instructions. In this scenario, the client has expressed a desire for a quick, uncomplicated sale. However, an experienced licensee should recognise that this desire might be based on anxiety rather than a complete understanding of the market potential. Simply recommending the acceptance of an early offer, even if it meets the client’s minimum expectation, may not fulfill the duty to act in their best interests if there is a strong likelihood of achieving a better result through the planned marketing campaign. The correct professional conduct involves a comprehensive communication strategy. The licensee is obligated under Rule 10.2 to present all written offers to the client without delay. Crucially, this presentation must be accompanied by expert advice. The licensee must clearly explain the advantages of the current offer, such as its unconditional nature and the speed of settlement, which align with the client’s stated wishes. Simultaneously, they must explain the potential disadvantages, specifically that accepting the offer forgoes the opportunity to generate competitive interest and a potentially higher price from the upcoming open home. This allows the client to weigh the certainty of the current offer against the potential of a better future outcome, thereby empowering them to make a fully informed decision that truly reflects their best interests. The final choice rests with the client, but it must be based on a complete and unbiased presentation of all relevant factors and strategic possibilities.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider a scenario where Anaru, a real estate licensee, is marketing a property for his client, Mei. The property has a shared driveway, but the maintenance arrangement with the neighbour is based on a verbal, informal agreement. Anaru’s cousin, Hana, expresses a strong interest in purchasing the property. For Anaru to proceed with the potential transaction in full compliance with his legal and ethical duties, what specific combination of actions is required?
Correct
The core of this issue involves two distinct but concurrent obligations under New Zealand’s real estate law: the disclosure of a conflict of interest and the disclosure of a material property defect. The conflict of interest arises because the licensee’s cousin wishes to purchase the property. Under section 134 of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, a licensee or a ‘person related to the licensee’ cannot acquire an interest in a property they are commissioned to sell unless specific steps are taken. A cousin falls within the definition of a ‘person related to a licensee’. The mandatory procedure requires the licensee to provide their client, the vendor, with a valuation of the property from an independent registered valuer. This valuation must be provided at the expense of the licensee or the related person. Following this, the licensee must obtain the client’s informed, written consent to the transaction on a prescribed form before any contract is executed. Separately, under Rule 10.7 of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, a licensee has an obligation to disclose any known material defects of a property to a customer. The informal, unwritten shared driveway agreement constitutes a potential defect in use or title that could negatively impact a purchaser’s decision. Therefore, the licensee must disclose this fact in writing to the prospective purchaser, who in this case is their cousin. Fulfilling only one of these obligations is insufficient and would constitute unsatisfactory conduct or misconduct. Both the stringent requirements for related-party transactions and the general duty of care to customers must be met.
Incorrect
The core of this issue involves two distinct but concurrent obligations under New Zealand’s real estate law: the disclosure of a conflict of interest and the disclosure of a material property defect. The conflict of interest arises because the licensee’s cousin wishes to purchase the property. Under section 134 of the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, a licensee or a ‘person related to the licensee’ cannot acquire an interest in a property they are commissioned to sell unless specific steps are taken. A cousin falls within the definition of a ‘person related to a licensee’. The mandatory procedure requires the licensee to provide their client, the vendor, with a valuation of the property from an independent registered valuer. This valuation must be provided at the expense of the licensee or the related person. Following this, the licensee must obtain the client’s informed, written consent to the transaction on a prescribed form before any contract is executed. Separately, under Rule 10.7 of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, a licensee has an obligation to disclose any known material defects of a property to a customer. The informal, unwritten shared driveway agreement constitutes a potential defect in use or title that could negatively impact a purchaser’s decision. Therefore, the licensee must disclose this fact in writing to the prospective purchaser, who in this case is their cousin. Fulfilling only one of these obligations is insufficient and would constitute unsatisfactory conduct or misconduct. Both the stringent requirements for related-party transactions and the general duty of care to customers must be met.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Matiu, a licensed agent, is representing the Harpers in the sale of their large residential property. The Harpers, an elderly couple, have expressed a desire for a quick and straightforward sale. A property developer, Chloe, whom Matiu knows socially, inspects the property. During a conversation, Chloe mentions to Matiu that there are strong, unconfirmed rumours circulating among developers that the local council is weeks away from announcing a rezoning of the area to allow for high-density development. Chloe intends to make an offer at the current market value for a single dwelling. Considering Matiu’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Code of Conduct, which of the following actions is the most appropriate for him to take?
Correct
An agent’s paramount responsibility is their fiduciary duty to their client, which is underpinned by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 6.1 mandates that a licensee must act in the best interests of their client. In this scenario, the information regarding a potential council rezoning is highly material, as it could substantially affect the property’s market value. Withholding this information would be a direct breach of Rule 10.7, which states a licensee must not withhold from a client information that is material to the client’s decision making in relation to a transaction. Even though the information is a rumour, its potential impact makes it material. The agent’s duty of care, skill, and diligence requires them to communicate this information to their client so the client can make a fully informed decision about their pricing and marketing strategy. Furthermore, Rule 9 requires the disclosure of any conflicts of interest. The agent’s social acquaintance with the potential purchaser constitutes a relationship that must be disclosed to the client in writing to ensure full transparency. Prioritising a quick sale over the client’s best financial outcome or treating unconfirmed information as irrelevant would be a failure of the agent’s professional and ethical obligations.
Incorrect
An agent’s paramount responsibility is their fiduciary duty to their client, which is underpinned by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. Specifically, Rule 6.1 mandates that a licensee must act in the best interests of their client. In this scenario, the information regarding a potential council rezoning is highly material, as it could substantially affect the property’s market value. Withholding this information would be a direct breach of Rule 10.7, which states a licensee must not withhold from a client information that is material to the client’s decision making in relation to a transaction. Even though the information is a rumour, its potential impact makes it material. The agent’s duty of care, skill, and diligence requires them to communicate this information to their client so the client can make a fully informed decision about their pricing and marketing strategy. Furthermore, Rule 9 requires the disclosure of any conflicts of interest. The agent’s social acquaintance with the potential purchaser constitutes a relationship that must be disclosed to the client in writing to ensure full transparency. Prioritising a quick sale over the client’s best financial outcome or treating unconfirmed information as irrelevant would be a failure of the agent’s professional and ethical obligations.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Aroha, a landlord, provides her tenant, Liam, with 63 days’ notice to conclude his periodic tenancy. The notice correctly states the reason for termination is that her son requires the property for his own occupation. Liam vacates the property on the specified date. Fifteen days later, Liam discovers the property prominently listed for sale with a local real estate agency. Aroha claims her son received an unexpected and non-negotiable job transfer overseas just before he was due to move in, making the property redundant for her family’s use. Considering the provisions of the Residential Tenancies Act 1986, what is the most accurate assessment of the legal position for both parties?
Correct
The core legal framework governing this scenario is the Residential Tenancies Act 1986, specifically the provisions related to terminating a periodic tenancy. When a landlord gives notice to terminate a tenancy because they or a family member intend to live in the property, they must provide at least 63 days’ notice. This is a specific ground for termination outlined in the Act. A critical component of this provision is the implied requirement of good faith. To prevent landlords from using this reason as a pretext to remove tenants for other purposes, such as selling the property with vacant possession, the Act includes a protective measure for tenants. If, after the tenancy is terminated for this reason, the landlord, without a reasonable excuse, either advertises the property for sale or re-lets it within 90 days of the termination date, this is deemed an unlawful act. The tenant who was required to vacate can then apply to the Tenancy Tribunal. The Tribunal’s role is to assess the facts, including the landlord’s stated “reasonable excuse” for their change in plans. A last-minute job offer for the family member could potentially be a reasonable excuse, but the Tribunal would weigh this against the timing and the landlord’s subsequent actions. If the Tribunal is not satisfied with the landlord’s explanation and finds the termination was effectively a sham, it has the power to order the landlord to pay exemplary damages to the former tenant. The maximum amount for such a breach is specified in the Act, reflecting the seriousness of wrongfully displacing a tenant. The primary remedy for the tenant is financial compensation through this Tribunal process, not reinstatement of the tenancy or action against third parties like real estate agents.
Incorrect
The core legal framework governing this scenario is the Residential Tenancies Act 1986, specifically the provisions related to terminating a periodic tenancy. When a landlord gives notice to terminate a tenancy because they or a family member intend to live in the property, they must provide at least 63 days’ notice. This is a specific ground for termination outlined in the Act. A critical component of this provision is the implied requirement of good faith. To prevent landlords from using this reason as a pretext to remove tenants for other purposes, such as selling the property with vacant possession, the Act includes a protective measure for tenants. If, after the tenancy is terminated for this reason, the landlord, without a reasonable excuse, either advertises the property for sale or re-lets it within 90 days of the termination date, this is deemed an unlawful act. The tenant who was required to vacate can then apply to the Tenancy Tribunal. The Tribunal’s role is to assess the facts, including the landlord’s stated “reasonable excuse” for their change in plans. A last-minute job offer for the family member could potentially be a reasonable excuse, but the Tribunal would weigh this against the timing and the landlord’s subsequent actions. If the Tribunal is not satisfied with the landlord’s explanation and finds the termination was effectively a sham, it has the power to order the landlord to pay exemplary damages to the former tenant. The maximum amount for such a breach is specified in the Act, reflecting the seriousness of wrongfully displacing a tenant. The primary remedy for the tenant is financial compensation through this Tribunal process, not reinstatement of the tenancy or action against third parties like real estate agents.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
An assessment of a licensee’s conduct in a complex transaction reveals several potential issues. Consider the following situation: Aroha, a licensee, is representing Mr. Chen in the sale of his property. Aroha presents an unconditional offer from a company, KiwiBuild Developments Ltd. Aroha’s spouse holds a minority, non-controlling shareholding in this company. Through her professional diligence, Aroha has discovered that a recent change to the District Plan has rezoned the property, significantly increasing its development potential and value. Mr. Chen is not aware of this specific rezoning detail. Aroha does not inform Mr. Chen about the full value implications of the rezoning, nor does she disclose her spousal connection to the purchasing company before he accepts the offer. Which of the following actions constitutes the most significant failure in Aroha’s duties under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the associated Rules?
Correct
The logical determination of the licensee’s primary failure involves a step-by-step analysis of their duties under New Zealand law. First, the foundational principle of agency is the fiduciary duty owed by the licensee to their client. This is enshrined in the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, particularly Rule 6.1, which obligates a licensee to act in the best interests of their client. Second, this duty encompasses a requirement to exercise skill, care, and competence (Rule 6.4) and to disclose all material information to the client. The information about the property’s new zoning classification is material as it directly and significantly affects the property’s market value and the client’s potential financial return. Withholding this information prevents the client from making a fully informed decision about the offer presented. Third, a distinct but related obligation exists regarding conflicts of interest under Rule 9.14. The licensee must disclose in writing any interest that they, or a person related to them, has in the transaction. The spousal connection to a shareholder of the purchasing company constitutes such an interest. While failing to follow the procedural disclosure for the conflict is a breach in itself, the most critical failure is the substantive one. The combination of withholding crucial valuation information while simultaneously having an undisclosed personal link to the purchaser constitutes a profound breach of the core fiduciary obligation to protect and advance the client’s interests above all others. It is this overarching failure to act in the client’s best interest, demonstrated by both non-disclosures, that is the most significant professional failing. The core of a real estate agent’s role in New Zealand is governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the accompanying Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. These establish a clear hierarchy of duties, with the fiduciary responsibility to the client being paramount. This means the agent must act with undivided loyalty, honesty, and good faith, always prioritizing the client’s best interests. A key component of this is the duty of disclosure. This is not limited to just disclosing known defects about a property to a customer, but more importantly, it involves disclosing any and all information to the client that could influence their decisions, particularly regarding the value of their property and the terms of any offer. In this scenario, the rezoning information is critical. Furthermore, the rules on conflicts of interest are extremely strict. Any potential conflict, whether financial or personal, that could compromise the agent’s loyalty to the client must be immediately and clearly disclosed in writing, and the client’s informed consent must be obtained to continue. The failure to disclose such a conflict fundamentally undermines the trust that is essential to the agent-client relationship. When a licensee fails to disclose both material information that benefits the client and a personal conflict of interest that benefits the other party, they are not merely committing a procedural error; they are violating the very essence of their professional and ethical mandate.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the licensee’s primary failure involves a step-by-step analysis of their duties under New Zealand law. First, the foundational principle of agency is the fiduciary duty owed by the licensee to their client. This is enshrined in the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, particularly Rule 6.1, which obligates a licensee to act in the best interests of their client. Second, this duty encompasses a requirement to exercise skill, care, and competence (Rule 6.4) and to disclose all material information to the client. The information about the property’s new zoning classification is material as it directly and significantly affects the property’s market value and the client’s potential financial return. Withholding this information prevents the client from making a fully informed decision about the offer presented. Third, a distinct but related obligation exists regarding conflicts of interest under Rule 9.14. The licensee must disclose in writing any interest that they, or a person related to them, has in the transaction. The spousal connection to a shareholder of the purchasing company constitutes such an interest. While failing to follow the procedural disclosure for the conflict is a breach in itself, the most critical failure is the substantive one. The combination of withholding crucial valuation information while simultaneously having an undisclosed personal link to the purchaser constitutes a profound breach of the core fiduciary obligation to protect and advance the client’s interests above all others. It is this overarching failure to act in the client’s best interest, demonstrated by both non-disclosures, that is the most significant professional failing. The core of a real estate agent’s role in New Zealand is governed by the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and the accompanying Professional Conduct and Client Care Rules 2012. These establish a clear hierarchy of duties, with the fiduciary responsibility to the client being paramount. This means the agent must act with undivided loyalty, honesty, and good faith, always prioritizing the client’s best interests. A key component of this is the duty of disclosure. This is not limited to just disclosing known defects about a property to a customer, but more importantly, it involves disclosing any and all information to the client that could influence their decisions, particularly regarding the value of their property and the terms of any offer. In this scenario, the rezoning information is critical. Furthermore, the rules on conflicts of interest are extremely strict. Any potential conflict, whether financial or personal, that could compromise the agent’s loyalty to the client must be immediately and clearly disclosed in writing, and the client’s informed consent must be obtained to continue. The failure to disclose such a conflict fundamentally undermines the trust that is essential to the agent-client relationship. When a licensee fails to disclose both material information that benefits the client and a personal conflict of interest that benefits the other party, they are not merely committing a procedural error; they are violating the very essence of their professional and ethical mandate.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
An assessment of a recent property transaction involving licensee Henare reveals a concerning pattern of behaviour. His client, Mrs. Peta, was an elderly widow under immense emotional and financial pressure to sell her home quickly to relocate. Henare was fully aware of her situation and her limited experience with real estate contracts. A developer, known to Henare, submitted a low, unconditional offer. Henare vigorously advocated for Mrs. Peta to accept it, emphasizing the speed of the settlement while downplaying the significantly below-market price. He rushed her through the signing process in a single meeting, did not explain key clauses, and failed to insist she seek independent legal advice before signing. Considering the totality of his actions, Henare’s conduct is most precisely identified as a breach of which specific provision within the Fair Trading Act 1986?
Correct
The situation described constitutes unconscionable conduct under Section 7 of the Fair Trading Act 1986. This section prohibits conduct in trade that is unconscionable. Unlike misleading or deceptive conduct under Section 9, which focuses on whether the conduct itself was likely to mislead a reasonable person, unconscionable conduct focuses on the exploitation of a party’s special disadvantage. The courts in New Zealand assess several factors to determine if conduct is unconscionable, including a significant imbalance in the parties’ bargaining power, the stronger party’s knowledge of the weaker party’s disadvantage, and the use of undue influence, pressure, or unfair tactics. In this scenario, the agent was aware of the vendor’s multiple vulnerabilities: her recent bereavement, advanced age, limited understanding of the process, and significant pressure to sell. The agent then actively exploited this disadvantage by pressuring her into a quick decision on a disadvantageous offer, failing to ensure she understood the terms, and neglecting to strongly recommend independent legal advice. This pattern of behaviour goes beyond being merely misleading; it is a morally reprehensible exploitation of a power imbalance, which is the specific harm that Section 7 aims to prevent. While the agent’s actions may also contain elements of being misleading or involving false representations, the most accurate and severe classification is unconscionable conduct due to the deliberate targeting of the vendor’s vulnerability.
Incorrect
The situation described constitutes unconscionable conduct under Section 7 of the Fair Trading Act 1986. This section prohibits conduct in trade that is unconscionable. Unlike misleading or deceptive conduct under Section 9, which focuses on whether the conduct itself was likely to mislead a reasonable person, unconscionable conduct focuses on the exploitation of a party’s special disadvantage. The courts in New Zealand assess several factors to determine if conduct is unconscionable, including a significant imbalance in the parties’ bargaining power, the stronger party’s knowledge of the weaker party’s disadvantage, and the use of undue influence, pressure, or unfair tactics. In this scenario, the agent was aware of the vendor’s multiple vulnerabilities: her recent bereavement, advanced age, limited understanding of the process, and significant pressure to sell. The agent then actively exploited this disadvantage by pressuring her into a quick decision on a disadvantageous offer, failing to ensure she understood the terms, and neglecting to strongly recommend independent legal advice. This pattern of behaviour goes beyond being merely misleading; it is a morally reprehensible exploitation of a power imbalance, which is the specific harm that Section 7 aims to prevent. While the agent’s actions may also contain elements of being misleading or involving false representations, the most accurate and severe classification is unconscionable conduct due to the deliberate targeting of the vendor’s vulnerability.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
An assessment of a complex complaint lodged with the Real Estate Authority (REA) against a licensee, Henare, reveals evidence supporting a potential finding of ‘unsatisfactory conduct’ related to poor communication, as well as a more severe allegation of knowingly withholding crucial defect information, which could constitute ‘misconduct’. Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, what is the most accurate description of the procedural powers available to the REA’s Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) in handling this dual-faceted complaint?
Correct
The correct procedural pathway involves the Real Estate Authority’s Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) making a determination on matters of unsatisfactory conduct, while laying formal charges before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal (READT) for allegations of misconduct. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 clearly delineates these roles. When a complaint is received, the REA refers it to a CAC. The CAC investigates the complaint to decide if there is a case to answer. If the CAC determines that the licensee’s actions may constitute unsatisfactory conduct, it has the power to make a finding and impose penalties itself. These penalties can include a censure, an order to apologize, a fine of up to $10,000, or an order to pay compensation up to $100,000. However, if the CAC believes the conduct is serious enough to be classified as misconduct, it does not have the jurisdiction to make a final determination or impose the more severe penalties associated with it. Instead, the CAC’s role is to formally lay a charge of misconduct against the licensee with the READT. The READT is a separate judicial body that then hears the case and, if the charge is proven, can impose more significant penalties, including fines up to $15,000, suspension of the license, or cancellation of the license. This two-tiered system ensures that less serious matters are handled efficiently while serious professional misconduct is adjudicated by a higher disciplinary body.
Incorrect
The correct procedural pathway involves the Real Estate Authority’s Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC) making a determination on matters of unsatisfactory conduct, while laying formal charges before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal (READT) for allegations of misconduct. The Real Estate Agents Act 2008 clearly delineates these roles. When a complaint is received, the REA refers it to a CAC. The CAC investigates the complaint to decide if there is a case to answer. If the CAC determines that the licensee’s actions may constitute unsatisfactory conduct, it has the power to make a finding and impose penalties itself. These penalties can include a censure, an order to apologize, a fine of up to $10,000, or an order to pay compensation up to $100,000. However, if the CAC believes the conduct is serious enough to be classified as misconduct, it does not have the jurisdiction to make a final determination or impose the more severe penalties associated with it. Instead, the CAC’s role is to formally lay a charge of misconduct against the licensee with the READT. The READT is a separate judicial body that then hears the case and, if the charge is proven, can impose more significant penalties, including fines up to $15,000, suspension of the license, or cancellation of the license. This two-tiered system ensures that less serious matters are handled efficiently while serious professional misconduct is adjudicated by a higher disciplinary body.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
An assessment of the powers of a Body Corporate under the Unit Titles Act 2010 is required in the following situation. The Body Corporate for ‘The Quayside Lofts’, a residential unit title development, proposes a new operational rule to completely prohibit any unit from being used for short-term accommodation rentals (under 30 days) that were not already in operation before the rule’s passing. Tāne, a recent purchaser, intended to use his unit for this purpose. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the legal standing of this proposed rule and Tāne’s rights?
Correct
The Unit Titles Act 2010 grants a body corporate the authority to create operational rules for the management, administration, and use of the units and common property. This power, however, is not absolute. Section 106(2) of the Act imposes a crucial limitation, stating that no operational rule can prohibit or restrict the transfer, lease, mortgage, or other dealing with a unit. A rule that imposes a complete ban on short-term accommodation rentals is very likely to be interpreted as a restriction on the owner’s right to lease or otherwise deal with their property. While a body corporate can regulate activities to prevent nuisance or damage, an outright prohibition on a lawful economic use of a unit typically exceeds its powers. Case law has reinforced this principle, establishing that such rules can be deemed invalid as they fundamentally interfere with the proprietary rights of a unit owner. Therefore, even if the body corporate’s intention is to preserve the amenity of the development for long-term residents, a blanket ban is legally precarious. An owner affected by such a rule has the right to challenge its validity by applying to the Tenancy Tribunal, which has jurisdiction over disputes under the Unit Titles Act. The Tribunal would assess whether the rule constitutes an unlawful restriction on dealing with the unit or is otherwise unreasonable or oppressive.
Incorrect
The Unit Titles Act 2010 grants a body corporate the authority to create operational rules for the management, administration, and use of the units and common property. This power, however, is not absolute. Section 106(2) of the Act imposes a crucial limitation, stating that no operational rule can prohibit or restrict the transfer, lease, mortgage, or other dealing with a unit. A rule that imposes a complete ban on short-term accommodation rentals is very likely to be interpreted as a restriction on the owner’s right to lease or otherwise deal with their property. While a body corporate can regulate activities to prevent nuisance or damage, an outright prohibition on a lawful economic use of a unit typically exceeds its powers. Case law has reinforced this principle, establishing that such rules can be deemed invalid as they fundamentally interfere with the proprietary rights of a unit owner. Therefore, even if the body corporate’s intention is to preserve the amenity of the development for long-term residents, a blanket ban is legally precarious. An owner affected by such a rule has the right to challenge its validity by applying to the Tenancy Tribunal, which has jurisdiction over disputes under the Unit Titles Act. The Tribunal would assess whether the rule constitutes an unlawful restriction on dealing with the unit or is otherwise unreasonable or oppressive.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Aroha entered into a standard 90-day sole agency agreement with ‘Prestige Realty’. The agreement stipulated that commission was payable if a buyer introduced by the agent purchased the property. After 45 days, feeling dissatisfied with the marketing efforts, Aroha emailed the agent to unilaterally terminate the agreement. The following week, a potential buyer who had previously been shown the property by the Prestige Realty agent contacted Aroha directly. They subsequently entered into a binding sale and purchase agreement. According to the Real Estate Agents Act 2008 and common agency agreement terms, what is the most likely outcome regarding Prestige Realty’s commission?
Correct
The legal position hinges on the nature of the sole agency agreement and the principle of effective introduction. A sole agency agreement is a binding contract for a fixed term, in this case, 90 days. A client cannot unilaterally terminate such an agreement before its expiry without cause or mutual consent without being in breach of the contract. The client’s dissatisfaction with marketing efforts is unlikely to be sufficient grounds for a valid unilateral termination that would extinguish all obligations. The critical event is the introduction of the eventual purchaser by the agent during the currency of the agreement. The agent’s right to commission is typically earned when they introduce a ready, willing, and able buyer who subsequently completes the purchase. In this scenario, the agent from Prestige Realty was the effective cause of the sale because they introduced the buyer to the property. The fact that the vendor later engaged in direct negotiations and finalized the sale herself does not sever the agent’s claim. The sale occurred with a party introduced by the agent and within the original 90-day term of the sole agency agreement. Therefore, the attempted termination is ineffective in voiding the agent’s entitlement to the commission as outlined in the signed agency agreement.
Incorrect
The legal position hinges on the nature of the sole agency agreement and the principle of effective introduction. A sole agency agreement is a binding contract for a fixed term, in this case, 90 days. A client cannot unilaterally terminate such an agreement before its expiry without cause or mutual consent without being in breach of the contract. The client’s dissatisfaction with marketing efforts is unlikely to be sufficient grounds for a valid unilateral termination that would extinguish all obligations. The critical event is the introduction of the eventual purchaser by the agent during the currency of the agreement. The agent’s right to commission is typically earned when they introduce a ready, willing, and able buyer who subsequently completes the purchase. In this scenario, the agent from Prestige Realty was the effective cause of the sale because they introduced the buyer to the property. The fact that the vendor later engaged in direct negotiations and finalized the sale herself does not sever the agent’s claim. The sale occurred with a party introduced by the agent and within the original 90-day term of the sole agency agreement. Therefore, the attempted termination is ineffective in voiding the agent’s entitlement to the commission as outlined in the signed agency agreement.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
An assessment of a character home in Mount Victoria, Wellington, is being undertaken by a licensed agent named Anika. The property is over 80 years old but has been meticulously maintained, showing only minor physical wear. However, its interior features a closed-off kitchen and a layout that restricts flow to the outdoor spaces, which is contrary to modern buyer preferences. The most pressing issue is that the Wellington City Council recently approved the construction of a large public transport hub on the next street, which will substantially increase noise and traffic in the immediate vicinity. When applying the cost approach, which form of depreciation should Anika identify as the primary and most incurable factor diminishing the property’s value?
Correct
Let’s assume the following figures for a hypothetical valuation using the cost approach. Land Value: $900,000 Replacement Cost New of the improvements: $850,000 Accumulated Depreciation is calculated as the sum of three components: 1. Physical Deterioration (minor wear, well-maintained): $40,000 2. Functional Obsolescence (outdated kitchen and layout): $75,000 3. External Obsolescence (impact from adjacent development): $200,000 Total Depreciation = \($40,000 + $75,000 + $200,000 = $315,000\) Depreciated Value of Improvements = Replacement Cost New – Total Depreciation = \($850,000 – $315,000 = $535,000\) Indicated Property Value = Land Value + Depreciated Value of Improvements = \($900,000 + $535,000 = $1,435,000\) In the cost approach to valuation, depreciation represents the loss in value of the improvements from all causes. It is crucial to distinguish between the three main categories. Physical deterioration is the tangible wear and tear on the property itself. Functional obsolescence is a loss in value resulting from outdated features, poor design, or a layout that does not meet current market expectations within the property’s own boundaries. This can often be curable, for instance, by renovating a kitchen. External obsolescence, also known as economic obsolescence, is a loss in value caused by negative factors outside of the subject property’s boundaries. Examples include adverse zoning changes, increased traffic, proximity to undesirable land uses like a new landfill, or a general economic decline in the neighbourhood. This form of depreciation is considered the most severe because it is almost always incurable by the property owner. An owner cannot change the zoning of an adjacent lot or stop a permitted development. Therefore, its impact on value is often the most significant and permanent when compared to curable physical or functional issues.
Incorrect
Let’s assume the following figures for a hypothetical valuation using the cost approach. Land Value: $900,000 Replacement Cost New of the improvements: $850,000 Accumulated Depreciation is calculated as the sum of three components: 1. Physical Deterioration (minor wear, well-maintained): $40,000 2. Functional Obsolescence (outdated kitchen and layout): $75,000 3. External Obsolescence (impact from adjacent development): $200,000 Total Depreciation = \($40,000 + $75,000 + $200,000 = $315,000\) Depreciated Value of Improvements = Replacement Cost New – Total Depreciation = \($850,000 – $315,000 = $535,000\) Indicated Property Value = Land Value + Depreciated Value of Improvements = \($900,000 + $535,000 = $1,435,000\) In the cost approach to valuation, depreciation represents the loss in value of the improvements from all causes. It is crucial to distinguish between the three main categories. Physical deterioration is the tangible wear and tear on the property itself. Functional obsolescence is a loss in value resulting from outdated features, poor design, or a layout that does not meet current market expectations within the property’s own boundaries. This can often be curable, for instance, by renovating a kitchen. External obsolescence, also known as economic obsolescence, is a loss in value caused by negative factors outside of the subject property’s boundaries. Examples include adverse zoning changes, increased traffic, proximity to undesirable land uses like a new landfill, or a general economic decline in the neighbourhood. This form of depreciation is considered the most severe because it is almost always incurable by the property owner. An owner cannot change the zoning of an adjacent lot or stop a permitted development. Therefore, its impact on value is often the most significant and permanent when compared to curable physical or functional issues.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Matiu, a licensed agent, is preparing a current market appraisal for a client’s distinctive, well-maintained 1940s character home. After thorough research, he identifies three recent sales to consider as comparables: 1. A brand new, architecturally different townhouse on an adjacent section, which sold last month. 2. A similar 1940s character home in a neighbouring suburb with a slightly lower average sale price, which sold seven months ago. 3. A 1940s home of similar size on the same street, which sold three months ago as a mortgagee sale and was in a state of significant disrepair. In determining the final appraised value range, which principle should most heavily guide Matiu’s weighting of these comparables to comply with the professional standards outlined in the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012?
Correct
The core task in a comparative market analysis is not merely to find sales, but to critically evaluate their relevance to the subject property. An agent’s obligation under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 is to provide an appraisal that is realistic and substantiated by evidence. This requires professional judgment in weighting the available data. In this scenario, each comparable has significant differences from the subject property. The key is to determine which differences are most distorting and which can be most reliably adjusted for. A mortgagee sale introduces a non-market condition that significantly impacts price, making it a poor indicator for a well-maintained property sold under normal circumstances. A brand new build, while recent and proximate, appeals to a different buyer segment and has a fundamentally different character, making direct value adjustments highly subjective and less reliable. The most comparable property in terms of its essential character, style, and appeal is the other 1940s home, even though it requires adjustments for time and location. These adjustments, while still requiring judgment, are generally considered more quantifiable and defensible than adjusting for fundamental differences in property type or the nature of the sale. Therefore, the guiding principle is to prioritize the comparable that is most similar in its intrinsic characteristics, as this provides the most solid foundation for the appraisal, and then make carefully reasoned adjustments for other variables. The weight given to a comparable should be inversely proportional to the magnitude and subjectivity of the required adjustments.
Incorrect
The core task in a comparative market analysis is not merely to find sales, but to critically evaluate their relevance to the subject property. An agent’s obligation under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 is to provide an appraisal that is realistic and substantiated by evidence. This requires professional judgment in weighting the available data. In this scenario, each comparable has significant differences from the subject property. The key is to determine which differences are most distorting and which can be most reliably adjusted for. A mortgagee sale introduces a non-market condition that significantly impacts price, making it a poor indicator for a well-maintained property sold under normal circumstances. A brand new build, while recent and proximate, appeals to a different buyer segment and has a fundamentally different character, making direct value adjustments highly subjective and less reliable. The most comparable property in terms of its essential character, style, and appeal is the other 1940s home, even though it requires adjustments for time and location. These adjustments, while still requiring judgment, are generally considered more quantifiable and defensible than adjusting for fundamental differences in property type or the nature of the sale. Therefore, the guiding principle is to prioritize the comparable that is most similar in its intrinsic characteristics, as this provides the most solid foundation for the appraisal, and then make carefully reasoned adjustments for other variables. The weight given to a comparable should be inversely proportional to the magnitude and subjectivity of the required adjustments.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
An assessment of a vendor’s remedies following a purchaser’s failure to settle involves understanding the court’s powers. Consider that Hinemoa entered into a standard ADLS Agreement for Sale and Purchase to sell her property to Anaru. Anaru failed to pay the balance of the purchase price on the settlement date. Hinemoa’s solicitor correctly issued a settlement notice, providing Anaru with 12 working days to complete the transaction. When Anaru again failed to settle, Hinemoa lawfully cancelled the agreement. One week later, Anaru, having finally secured his financing, applied to the High Court for relief against cancellation. In exercising its discretion under the Property Law Act 2007, what is the primary consideration for the court in deciding whether to grant Anaru’s application?
Correct
The legal framework for this scenario is governed by the Property Law Act 2007, specifically section 50, which grants the court a broad discretionary power to provide relief against the cancellation of an agreement for the sale and purchase of land. When a vendor, like Hinemoa, has validly cancelled a contract due to the purchaser’s breach (in this case, failure to settle after a settlement notice has expired), the purchaser, Anaru, can apply to the court for an order reinstating the agreement. The court’s decision is not based on a single, rigid rule but on what is just and equitable in all the circumstances. To determine this, the court undertakes a comprehensive balancing exercise. It weighs the potential harm or prejudice that the vendor would suffer if the contract were reinstated against the prejudice the purchaser would suffer if the cancellation were upheld. Factors considered in this balancing act include the reason for the purchaser’s default, the length of the delay, whether the purchaser is now ready, willing, and able to settle, and the conduct of both parties. A critical element is the impact on the vendor; for instance, have they already entered into a new sale agreement with another party, or has the market changed significantly? The court will also consider the loss to the purchaser, such as the forfeiture of their deposit and the loss of the specific property. Ultimately, the central judicial task is to balance these competing interests to arrive at a fair outcome.
Incorrect
The legal framework for this scenario is governed by the Property Law Act 2007, specifically section 50, which grants the court a broad discretionary power to provide relief against the cancellation of an agreement for the sale and purchase of land. When a vendor, like Hinemoa, has validly cancelled a contract due to the purchaser’s breach (in this case, failure to settle after a settlement notice has expired), the purchaser, Anaru, can apply to the court for an order reinstating the agreement. The court’s decision is not based on a single, rigid rule but on what is just and equitable in all the circumstances. To determine this, the court undertakes a comprehensive balancing exercise. It weighs the potential harm or prejudice that the vendor would suffer if the contract were reinstated against the prejudice the purchaser would suffer if the cancellation were upheld. Factors considered in this balancing act include the reason for the purchaser’s default, the length of the delay, whether the purchaser is now ready, willing, and able to settle, and the conduct of both parties. A critical element is the impact on the vendor; for instance, have they already entered into a new sale agreement with another party, or has the market changed significantly? The court will also consider the loss to the purchaser, such as the forfeiture of their deposit and the loss of the specific property. Ultimately, the central judicial task is to balance these competing interests to arrive at a fair outcome.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A valuer in Christchurch is tasked with appraising a Category 1 historic building in the central city that has been operating as a successful boutique hotel for the past decade. The building’s unique architecture and heritage status are significant drawcards for its clientele. Given the property’s specific characteristics, which valuation approach provides the most reliable indication of its market value?
Correct
The logical determination of the most appropriate valuation method for this unique property proceeds as follows. First, the property’s key characteristics are identified: it is a commercial, income-generating entity (a boutique hotel) and also a unique, historic building with a Category 1 listing. Second, each valuation method is assessed for its suitability. The sales comparison approach is evaluated and found to be highly problematic. Finding recent sales of truly comparable Category 1 historic buildings converted into boutique hotels would be extremely difficult, if not impossible. The subjective nature of adjustments for historical significance, architectural uniqueness, and specific business performance would render the result unreliable. Third, the cost approach is considered. The cost to reproduce an identical historic structure would be prohibitively expensive and economically unfeasible. The replacement cost (cost of a modern equivalent) would not capture the unique value and character of the heritage building, which is a key driver of its appeal and, therefore, its income. This method largely ignores the property’s economic function. Fourth, the income capitalization approach is analyzed. This method directly measures the property’s value based on its primary purpose: generating income. A potential buyer would be purchasing an ongoing business concern, and their valuation would be based on its net operating income and the expected rate of return (capitalization rate). This approach best reflects the economic reality and the motivations of market participants for this type of asset. Therefore, it is the most relevant and reliable primary method of valuation. In the valuation of real estate, the selection of the most appropriate methodology is crucial and depends heavily on the nature of the property being appraised. For a property that is primarily held for its ability to generate revenue, such as a hotel, the income capitalization approach is typically considered the most relevant. This method establishes a direct relationship between the income the property generates and its market value. The value is determined by capitalizing the net operating income, which reflects the property’s performance as a business. While other methods have their place, their limitations are pronounced in this specific scenario. The sales comparison approach, which relies on comparing the subject property to similar recently sold properties, is severely hampered by the uniqueness of a Category 1 historic building. Finding sufficient, truly comparable sales is unlikely, making any adjustments highly speculative and reducing the reliability of the outcome. Similarly, the cost approach, which values a property based on the cost to replace it, fails to account for the intangible value associated with the building’s heritage status and its established business operation. It values the physical components but not the economic engine they house. Consequently, the income stream is the most direct and logical indicator of value for a commercial investor, making the income approach the principal tool for this appraisal.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the most appropriate valuation method for this unique property proceeds as follows. First, the property’s key characteristics are identified: it is a commercial, income-generating entity (a boutique hotel) and also a unique, historic building with a Category 1 listing. Second, each valuation method is assessed for its suitability. The sales comparison approach is evaluated and found to be highly problematic. Finding recent sales of truly comparable Category 1 historic buildings converted into boutique hotels would be extremely difficult, if not impossible. The subjective nature of adjustments for historical significance, architectural uniqueness, and specific business performance would render the result unreliable. Third, the cost approach is considered. The cost to reproduce an identical historic structure would be prohibitively expensive and economically unfeasible. The replacement cost (cost of a modern equivalent) would not capture the unique value and character of the heritage building, which is a key driver of its appeal and, therefore, its income. This method largely ignores the property’s economic function. Fourth, the income capitalization approach is analyzed. This method directly measures the property’s value based on its primary purpose: generating income. A potential buyer would be purchasing an ongoing business concern, and their valuation would be based on its net operating income and the expected rate of return (capitalization rate). This approach best reflects the economic reality and the motivations of market participants for this type of asset. Therefore, it is the most relevant and reliable primary method of valuation. In the valuation of real estate, the selection of the most appropriate methodology is crucial and depends heavily on the nature of the property being appraised. For a property that is primarily held for its ability to generate revenue, such as a hotel, the income capitalization approach is typically considered the most relevant. This method establishes a direct relationship between the income the property generates and its market value. The value is determined by capitalizing the net operating income, which reflects the property’s performance as a business. While other methods have their place, their limitations are pronounced in this specific scenario. The sales comparison approach, which relies on comparing the subject property to similar recently sold properties, is severely hampered by the uniqueness of a Category 1 historic building. Finding sufficient, truly comparable sales is unlikely, making any adjustments highly speculative and reducing the reliability of the outcome. Similarly, the cost approach, which values a property based on the cost to replace it, fails to account for the intangible value associated with the building’s heritage status and its established business operation. It values the physical components but not the economic engine they house. Consequently, the income stream is the most direct and logical indicator of value for a commercial investor, making the income approach the principal tool for this appraisal.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
An agency lists a property at 15 Kowhai Street. A prospective buyer, Hana, submits a conditional offer which includes her personal financial information and the contact details for her mortgage broker. The vendor rejects Hana’s offer. Two weeks later, a different licensee within the same agency, Liam, is marketing a new listing at 27 Rimu Avenue. Recalling Hana’s interest in the area, Liam asks his manager if he can access the file for 15 Kowhai Street to retrieve the mortgage broker’s details. Liam’s intention is to contact the broker to see if Hana would be in a financial position to make an offer on the Rimu Avenue property. According to the Privacy Act 2020, what is the most appropriate action for the agency’s manager to take?
Correct
The analysis of this scenario hinges on Information Privacy Principle 10 (IPP 10) of the Privacy Act 2020, which governs the limits on the use of personal information. The personal information provided by the prospective buyer, including their financial details and mortgage broker’s contact, was collected for the specific and explicit purpose of presenting an offer for the property at 15 Kowhai Street. The use of this information is strictly limited to that purpose. The proposal to use this same information to market a different property at 27 Rimu Avenue constitutes a new and separate purpose. Under IPP 10, an agency cannot use personal information obtained in connection with one matter for another, unless an exception applies. The most common exceptions are that the new use is directly related to the original purpose of collection, or that the individual concerned has given their express authorisation for the new use. Marketing a different property is not considered directly related to the processing of an offer on a previous property. Therefore, without obtaining the prospective buyer’s explicit consent to use their information for this new purpose, the agency would be in breach of its obligations under the Privacy Act 2020. The correct procedure is to recognise the information is ring-fenced to its original collection purpose and that any new use requires fresh authorisation from the individual.
Incorrect
The analysis of this scenario hinges on Information Privacy Principle 10 (IPP 10) of the Privacy Act 2020, which governs the limits on the use of personal information. The personal information provided by the prospective buyer, including their financial details and mortgage broker’s contact, was collected for the specific and explicit purpose of presenting an offer for the property at 15 Kowhai Street. The use of this information is strictly limited to that purpose. The proposal to use this same information to market a different property at 27 Rimu Avenue constitutes a new and separate purpose. Under IPP 10, an agency cannot use personal information obtained in connection with one matter for another, unless an exception applies. The most common exceptions are that the new use is directly related to the original purpose of collection, or that the individual concerned has given their express authorisation for the new use. Marketing a different property is not considered directly related to the processing of an offer on a previous property. Therefore, without obtaining the prospective buyer’s explicit consent to use their information for this new purpose, the agency would be in breach of its obligations under the Privacy Act 2020. The correct procedure is to recognise the information is ring-fenced to its original collection purpose and that any new use requires fresh authorisation from the individual.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
The following case demonstrates a common ethical dilemma. Kenji is the agent for Mei’s property. During a neighbourhood walk, a long-term resident casually mentions to Kenji that Mei’s backyard suffers from significant water pooling during torrential downpours. When Kenji raises this with Mei, she is dismissive, stating it happened only once during a “freak storm” five years ago and is not a recurring problem. The vendor-completed property information form she provided makes no mention of any drainage or water-logging issues. Considering Kenji’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, what is his most professionally responsible next step?
Correct
The core issue revolves around an agent’s obligations when they become aware of a potential, but unverified, defect. Under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, a licensee has a fundamental duty to deal fairly and honestly with all parties involved in a transaction. Specifically, Rule 6.4 mandates that an agent must act in good faith and deal fairly with all parties. Furthermore, Rule 10.7 is critical here: a licensee is not required to discover hidden or underlying defects but must disclose any known defects to a customer. The information from the neighbour, even though verbal, means the agent now has knowledge of a potential defect. The agent cannot simply ignore this information, nor can they rely solely on the vendor’s dismissal of the issue. To do so would be a failure in their duty of care and could be considered misleading conduct under Rule 10.2. The most professional and compliant course of action is to address the issue directly with the client. The agent must inform the vendor of their own legal and ethical obligations to disclose known potential defects. They should then advise the vendor on the best way to proceed, which involves either clarifying the situation with factual evidence, such as a formal report from a drainage expert or council, or agreeing to disclose the potential for the issue to all prospective purchasers. This approach protects the buyer by providing transparency, protects the vendor from future claims by ensuring proper disclosure, and ensures the agent complies with their professional duties.
Incorrect
The core issue revolves around an agent’s obligations when they become aware of a potential, but unverified, defect. Under the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, a licensee has a fundamental duty to deal fairly and honestly with all parties involved in a transaction. Specifically, Rule 6.4 mandates that an agent must act in good faith and deal fairly with all parties. Furthermore, Rule 10.7 is critical here: a licensee is not required to discover hidden or underlying defects but must disclose any known defects to a customer. The information from the neighbour, even though verbal, means the agent now has knowledge of a potential defect. The agent cannot simply ignore this information, nor can they rely solely on the vendor’s dismissal of the issue. To do so would be a failure in their duty of care and could be considered misleading conduct under Rule 10.2. The most professional and compliant course of action is to address the issue directly with the client. The agent must inform the vendor of their own legal and ethical obligations to disclose known potential defects. They should then advise the vendor on the best way to proceed, which involves either clarifying the situation with factual evidence, such as a formal report from a drainage expert or council, or agreeing to disclose the potential for the issue to all prospective purchasers. This approach protects the buyer by providing transparency, protects the vendor from future claims by ensuring proper disclosure, and ensures the agent complies with their professional duties.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Assessment of the Silverstream District Council’s growth strategy shows a plan to address housing shortages by rezoning a large rural area for high-density residential development. To service this new suburb, the council must undertake a major upgrade of the wastewater network. Their proposal involves two key actions under the Local Government Act 2002: first, introducing a targeted rate applicable only to properties within the new development zone to fund the wastewater upgrade; and second, enacting a new bylaw that requires all new dwellings in this zone to have a certified rainwater collection system installed to reduce stormwater load. A developer, Hemi, is concerned about the legality of the council imposing both a specific rate and a building requirement. What is the most accurate analysis of the council’s legal position?
Correct
Under the Local Government Act 2002, a local authority is empowered to use a range of tools to manage development and provide for the needs of its community. The Act’s purpose includes enabling democratic local decision making and promoting the social, economic, environmental, and cultural well being of communities. To achieve this, councils have specific powers regarding funding and regulation. Part 4 of the Act grants councils the power to set and assess rates to fund local government activities. This includes the ability to set targeted rates, which are applied to specific groups of ratepayers to fund particular services or projects from which they derive a distinct benefit. A targeted rate for new wastewater infrastructure that services a specific new development area is a clear example of this power being used appropriately. Separately, Part 8 of the Act grants councils the power to make bylaws for the good governance of their district. This includes creating bylaws to protect the public from nuisance, maintain public health and safety, and manage, regulate, and protect council infrastructure. A bylaw mandating water conservation measures, such as rainwater tanks, in a new development falls within this scope, as it helps manage demand on the water and wastewater systems the council is responsible for. A key procedural requirement for both creating a new bylaw and introducing a significant new targeted rate (typically as part of a Long Term Plan or Annual Plan) is the use of the Special Consultative Procedure under section 83. This ensures public consultation. Therefore, a council can legally and concurrently implement a targeted rate to fund infrastructure and a bylaw to manage the use of that infrastructure, as they are complementary actions within its statutory powers, provided the correct consultative process has been followed for each.
Incorrect
Under the Local Government Act 2002, a local authority is empowered to use a range of tools to manage development and provide for the needs of its community. The Act’s purpose includes enabling democratic local decision making and promoting the social, economic, environmental, and cultural well being of communities. To achieve this, councils have specific powers regarding funding and regulation. Part 4 of the Act grants councils the power to set and assess rates to fund local government activities. This includes the ability to set targeted rates, which are applied to specific groups of ratepayers to fund particular services or projects from which they derive a distinct benefit. A targeted rate for new wastewater infrastructure that services a specific new development area is a clear example of this power being used appropriately. Separately, Part 8 of the Act grants councils the power to make bylaws for the good governance of their district. This includes creating bylaws to protect the public from nuisance, maintain public health and safety, and manage, regulate, and protect council infrastructure. A bylaw mandating water conservation measures, such as rainwater tanks, in a new development falls within this scope, as it helps manage demand on the water and wastewater systems the council is responsible for. A key procedural requirement for both creating a new bylaw and introducing a significant new targeted rate (typically as part of a Long Term Plan or Annual Plan) is the use of the Special Consultative Procedure under section 83. This ensures public consultation. Therefore, a council can legally and concurrently implement a targeted rate to fund infrastructure and a bylaw to manage the use of that infrastructure, as they are complementary actions within its statutory powers, provided the correct consultative process has been followed for each.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Assessment of a property’s development potential reveals it is located directly adjacent to a Significant Natural Area (SNA) as defined in the operative District Plan. A prospective purchaser, who is a developer, has informed the agent, Anaru, of their intention to construct a multi-unit residential complex on the site. Considering Anaru’s obligations and the framework of the Resource Management Act 1991, what is the most critical implication of the SNA designation that he must convey to the developer?
Correct
The core of this issue lies in the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA) and its implementation through local government planning documents, specifically the District Plan. The RMA’s primary purpose is to promote the sustainable management of natural and physical resources. District Plans are the key tools used by territorial authorities (city and district councils) to achieve this purpose at a local level. These plans contain objectives, policies, and rules that control land use and subdivision activities. A Significant Natural Area (SNA) is a formal designation within a District Plan used to protect areas of significant indigenous vegetation and significant habitats of indigenous fauna. When a property is adjacent to or contains an SNA, the rules in the District Plan impose strict controls on activities that could adversely affect the ecological values of that area. For a developer proposing a high-density housing project, this designation is a critical constraint. The proposed activity would almost certainly not be a permitted activity. Instead, it would likely be classified as a discretionary or even a non-complying activity. This triggers the need for a resource consent application. The council’s assessment of this application would be rigorous, focusing heavily on the potential adverse environmental effects on the SNA. The applicant would bear the onus of proving that the effects of the development on the SNA’s specific values are no more than minor, or that they can be adequately avoided, remedied, or mitigated. The council has the authority to decline the consent if it determines the adverse effects are unacceptable or contrary to the objectives and policies of the plan, which are designed to protect these significant areas. Therefore, the SNA designation fundamentally alters the development potential and introduces a significant hurdle in the resource consent process, with no guarantee of approval.
Incorrect
The core of this issue lies in the Resource Management Act 1991 (RMA) and its implementation through local government planning documents, specifically the District Plan. The RMA’s primary purpose is to promote the sustainable management of natural and physical resources. District Plans are the key tools used by territorial authorities (city and district councils) to achieve this purpose at a local level. These plans contain objectives, policies, and rules that control land use and subdivision activities. A Significant Natural Area (SNA) is a formal designation within a District Plan used to protect areas of significant indigenous vegetation and significant habitats of indigenous fauna. When a property is adjacent to or contains an SNA, the rules in the District Plan impose strict controls on activities that could adversely affect the ecological values of that area. For a developer proposing a high-density housing project, this designation is a critical constraint. The proposed activity would almost certainly not be a permitted activity. Instead, it would likely be classified as a discretionary or even a non-complying activity. This triggers the need for a resource consent application. The council’s assessment of this application would be rigorous, focusing heavily on the potential adverse environmental effects on the SNA. The applicant would bear the onus of proving that the effects of the development on the SNA’s specific values are no more than minor, or that they can be adequately avoided, remedied, or mitigated. The council has the authority to decline the consent if it determines the adverse effects are unacceptable or contrary to the objectives and policies of the plan, which are designed to protect these significant areas. Therefore, the SNA designation fundamentally alters the development potential and introduces a significant hurdle in the resource consent process, with no guarantee of approval.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
An assessment of a proposed land acquisition by Elysian Global Holdings, a corporation majority-owned by overseas interests, reveals the following: the target property is a 300-hectare rural estate that adjoins a national park and contains a primary telecommunications relay station essential for regional connectivity. Elysian has provided a comprehensive plan that demonstrably meets the criteria for the ‘benefit to New Zealand’ test under the Overseas Investment Act 2005, including significant job creation and environmental restoration commitments. Despite this, what is the ultimate determining factor for the approval of this transaction?
Correct
No calculation is required for this conceptual question. The Overseas Investment Act 2005 governs the acquisition of sensitive New Zealand assets by overseas persons. An ‘overseas person’ includes a company incorporated outside New Zealand or a company where overseas persons hold 25 percent or more ownership or control. Land is often deemed ‘sensitive’ if it exceeds certain area thresholds, such as rural land over 5 hectares, or if it adjoins specific types of land like the foreshore, a lake bed, or a public conservation area. For a transaction involving an overseas person acquiring sensitive land, consent from the Overseas Investment Office is required. The consent process involves several key tests. The ‘investor test’ assesses the applicant’s business acumen, financial commitment, and good character. The ‘benefit to New Zealand’ test requires the investment to result in one or more substantial and identifiable benefits to the country, which can include economic, environmental, or public access advantages. However, for transactions involving strategically important assets, a further and paramount assessment is applied: the ‘national interest test’. This test grants relevant Government Ministers the power to decline consent if the investment is deemed contrary to New Zealand’s national interest, considering factors like national security, public order, and economic stability. The presence of critical national infrastructure on the land would trigger this test. Even if an application satisfies the ‘benefit to New Zealand’ test, it can still be rejected under the national interest test, which serves as a final, overriding safeguard for the country’s most critical assets.
Incorrect
No calculation is required for this conceptual question. The Overseas Investment Act 2005 governs the acquisition of sensitive New Zealand assets by overseas persons. An ‘overseas person’ includes a company incorporated outside New Zealand or a company where overseas persons hold 25 percent or more ownership or control. Land is often deemed ‘sensitive’ if it exceeds certain area thresholds, such as rural land over 5 hectares, or if it adjoins specific types of land like the foreshore, a lake bed, or a public conservation area. For a transaction involving an overseas person acquiring sensitive land, consent from the Overseas Investment Office is required. The consent process involves several key tests. The ‘investor test’ assesses the applicant’s business acumen, financial commitment, and good character. The ‘benefit to New Zealand’ test requires the investment to result in one or more substantial and identifiable benefits to the country, which can include economic, environmental, or public access advantages. However, for transactions involving strategically important assets, a further and paramount assessment is applied: the ‘national interest test’. This test grants relevant Government Ministers the power to decline consent if the investment is deemed contrary to New Zealand’s national interest, considering factors like national security, public order, and economic stability. The presence of critical national infrastructure on the land would trigger this test. Even if an application satisfies the ‘benefit to New Zealand’ test, it can still be rejected under the national interest test, which serves as a final, overriding safeguard for the country’s most critical assets.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
An assessment of a complaint against a licensee, Kenji, is undertaken by a Complaints Assessment Committee (CAC). The complaint stems from Kenji becoming aware of a significant, unconsented extension on a property only after a prospective buyer’s LIM report revealed it. While Kenji subsequently updated the online marketing materials to reflect the correct information, he did not proactively contact another party, Hana, who had previously viewed the property and expressed strong interest based on the initial, incorrect representations. Hana discovered the issue independently and lodged the complaint. Given these specific circumstances, which of the following actions represents the most probable determination and subsequent step the CAC would take under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008?
Correct
Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, the complaints and disciplinary process is tiered. When a complaint is received by the Real Estate Authority, it may be referred to a Complaints Assessment Committee for investigation. The CAC’s primary role is to determine if the licensee’s actions constitute “unsatisfactory conduct” as defined in section 72 of the Act. Unsatisfactory conduct is conduct that falls short of the standard that a reasonable member of the public is entitled to expect from a licensee. This includes breaches of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, such as failing to deal fairly and honestly with all parties. In this scenario, the licensee became aware of materially significant negative information but only corrected the public advertising. The failure to proactively and directly inform a known, interested party to whom previous, now incorrect, information had been provided is a clear failure to act with the required standard of care and fairness. This action directly fits the definition of unsatisfactory conduct. The CAC has the power to make a finding of unsatisfactory conduct and can impose penalties itself, which may include a censure, a fine up to ten thousand dollars, or an order to undertake training. While serious, this conduct may not meet the higher threshold of “misconduct” under section 73, which involves disgraceful, reckless, or willfully non-compliant behaviour and would necessitate laying charges before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal. Therefore, the most probable course of action is for the CAC to make a determination of unsatisfactory conduct and exercise its own powers to resolve the matter.
Incorrect
Under the Real Estate Agents Act 2008, the complaints and disciplinary process is tiered. When a complaint is received by the Real Estate Authority, it may be referred to a Complaints Assessment Committee for investigation. The CAC’s primary role is to determine if the licensee’s actions constitute “unsatisfactory conduct” as defined in section 72 of the Act. Unsatisfactory conduct is conduct that falls short of the standard that a reasonable member of the public is entitled to expect from a licensee. This includes breaches of the Real Estate Agents Act (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012, such as failing to deal fairly and honestly with all parties. In this scenario, the licensee became aware of materially significant negative information but only corrected the public advertising. The failure to proactively and directly inform a known, interested party to whom previous, now incorrect, information had been provided is a clear failure to act with the required standard of care and fairness. This action directly fits the definition of unsatisfactory conduct. The CAC has the power to make a finding of unsatisfactory conduct and can impose penalties itself, which may include a censure, a fine up to ten thousand dollars, or an order to undertake training. While serious, this conduct may not meet the higher threshold of “misconduct” under section 73, which involves disgraceful, reckless, or willfully non-compliant behaviour and would necessitate laying charges before the Real Estate Agents Disciplinary Tribunal. Therefore, the most probable course of action is for the CAC to make a determination of unsatisfactory conduct and exercise its own powers to resolve the matter.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
An assessment of a licensee’s obligations under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012 presents a complex situation when a client’s instruction directly conflicts with disclosure requirements. Consider a licensee, Kenji, who is marketing a property for his client, Mei. Mei informs Kenji that the property experienced significant foundation issues two years prior, which were addressed with cosmetic repairs only, and no formal engineering sign-off was obtained. Mei explicitly instructs Kenji not to disclose this history to any potential buyers. When a prospective buyer asks Kenji directly if the property has ever had any structural problems, what is the most appropriate and compliant course of action for Kenji?
Correct
No calculation is required for this question. The core of this ethical dilemma rests on the conflict between a licensee’s duties to their client and their broader obligations under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. While a licensee has a fundamental duty to act in the best interests of their client, as stipulated in Rule 6.4, this duty does not override their legal and ethical obligations of honesty, fairness, and disclosure to all parties in a transaction. Specifically, Rule 10.7 mandates that a licensee must not mislead a customer or client, conceal any known material defects in a property, or provide false information. A history of significant, unresolved structural issues, even if cosmetically repaired, constitutes a material defect. The client’s instruction to conceal this information is an instruction to breach the Code of Conduct. The licensee must first counsel the client, explaining their legal obligation to disclose the defect. If the client persists in their instruction to conceal the information, the licensee cannot comply. Continuing the agency relationship under these circumstances would make the licensee party to misleading and deceptive conduct. Therefore, the only professionally and legally sound course of action is to decline the instruction and, if the client will not relent, to terminate the agency agreement as per Rule 9.2, which requires a licensee to stop acting for a client who insists on a course of action that would breach the rules.
Incorrect
No calculation is required for this question. The core of this ethical dilemma rests on the conflict between a licensee’s duties to their client and their broader obligations under the Real Estate Agents (Professional Conduct and Client Care) Rules 2012. While a licensee has a fundamental duty to act in the best interests of their client, as stipulated in Rule 6.4, this duty does not override their legal and ethical obligations of honesty, fairness, and disclosure to all parties in a transaction. Specifically, Rule 10.7 mandates that a licensee must not mislead a customer or client, conceal any known material defects in a property, or provide false information. A history of significant, unresolved structural issues, even if cosmetically repaired, constitutes a material defect. The client’s instruction to conceal this information is an instruction to breach the Code of Conduct. The licensee must first counsel the client, explaining their legal obligation to disclose the defect. If the client persists in their instruction to conceal the information, the licensee cannot comply. Continuing the agency relationship under these circumstances would make the licensee party to misleading and deceptive conduct. Therefore, the only professionally and legally sound course of action is to decline the instruction and, if the client will not relent, to terminate the agency agreement as per Rule 9.2, which requires a licensee to stop acting for a client who insists on a course of action that would breach the rules.