Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
Premium Practice Questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Genevieve, a master chocolatier, leased a commercial space in Eugene, Oregon. For her business, she commissioned a custom, five-ton marble confectionery table. The table was too large to fit through any doors, so her contractor had to remove a non-load-bearing section of an exterior wall, place the table inside with a crane, and then rebuild the wall. The table rests on the floor by its own immense weight and is not bolted down. The lease agreement contains a standard clause stating, “all improvements, alterations, or additions made by the Tenant shall become the property of the Landlord upon termination of this lease.” When Genevieve’s lease expires, she intends to take the table, but the landlord claims it is a fixture and must stay. Based on Oregon’s legal tests for fixtures, what is the most probable outcome of this dispute?
Correct
The determination of whether an item is a fixture or personal property hinges on a series of legal tests designed to infer the intent of the annexor. In Oregon, courts analyze the method of annexation, the adaptation of the item to the real property’s use, the relationship of the parties, the annexor’s intent, and any existing agreements. While items installed by a commercial tenant for business purposes are generally considered trade fixtures and remain the tenant’s personal property, this presumption can be overcome. A critical factor is the method of attachment. Even if an item is not bolted down, constructive annexation can occur if its removal would cause significant damage or if it was installed in a way that implies permanence. In this scenario, the necessity of removing and rebuilding a wall to install the item suggests a high degree of intended permanence, weighing against its classification as a trade fixture. Furthermore, the language within the lease agreement is paramount. A clause stipulating that all improvements become the landlord’s property, even if general, can be interpreted by a court to include substantial installations like the one described, especially when coupled with the significant structural modification required to place it. Therefore, a court would likely find that the evidence of permanent installation and the contractual language of the lease are sufficient to overcome the general rule for trade fixtures, classifying the item as a fixture belonging to the property owner.
Incorrect
The determination of whether an item is a fixture or personal property hinges on a series of legal tests designed to infer the intent of the annexor. In Oregon, courts analyze the method of annexation, the adaptation of the item to the real property’s use, the relationship of the parties, the annexor’s intent, and any existing agreements. While items installed by a commercial tenant for business purposes are generally considered trade fixtures and remain the tenant’s personal property, this presumption can be overcome. A critical factor is the method of attachment. Even if an item is not bolted down, constructive annexation can occur if its removal would cause significant damage or if it was installed in a way that implies permanence. In this scenario, the necessity of removing and rebuilding a wall to install the item suggests a high degree of intended permanence, weighing against its classification as a trade fixture. Furthermore, the language within the lease agreement is paramount. A clause stipulating that all improvements become the landlord’s property, even if general, can be interpreted by a court to include substantial installations like the one described, especially when coupled with the significant structural modification required to place it. Therefore, a court would likely find that the evidence of permanent installation and the contractual language of the lease are sufficient to overcome the general rule for trade fixtures, classifying the item as a fixture belonging to the property owner.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider a scenario involving two properties along a non-navigable creek in rural Oregon. The downstream parcel has been in the same family since 1895, and they have consistently used water from the creek for their livestock. They never filed for a formal water right. The upstream parcel was recently purchased by a new owner, Lin, who in the current year obtained a valid water right permit from the Oregon Water Resources Department (OWRD) to divert water for a new commercial nursery. Lin’s diversion significantly reduces the water flow, impacting the downstream owner’s ability to water their livestock. An assessment of this situation under Oregon water law would most likely conclude that:
Correct
Oregon water law operates under a dual system that distinguishes between water uses established before and after the 1909 Water Rights Act. For water uses initiated after 1909, Oregon follows the doctrine of prior appropriation. This system, often summarized as “first in time, first in right,” grants a superior right to the first person who obtains a water right permit from the Oregon Water Resources Department (OWRD) and puts the water to a beneficial use. This right is a legal entitlement to a specific quantity of water for a specific purpose and is not dependent on land ownership adjacent to the water source. In contrast, water uses for purposes like domestic use and stock watering that were established before 1909 may be recognized as vested rights, which are based on common law riparian principles. However, for such a pre-1909 right to be legally enforceable against a junior, permitted water right holder, it must typically be confirmed through a formal court process known as a general stream adjudication. Without a court decree confirming the existence, priority date, and extent of the pre-1909 vested right, the modern, state-issued permit is the controlling legal instrument. Therefore, a landowner with a valid, current OWRD permit has a legally superior right to the water over a landowner with an unadjudicated historical claim, even if that historical use predates the permit. The holder of the unadjudicated claim bears the burden of initiating legal proceedings to have their vested right formally recognized.
Incorrect
Oregon water law operates under a dual system that distinguishes between water uses established before and after the 1909 Water Rights Act. For water uses initiated after 1909, Oregon follows the doctrine of prior appropriation. This system, often summarized as “first in time, first in right,” grants a superior right to the first person who obtains a water right permit from the Oregon Water Resources Department (OWRD) and puts the water to a beneficial use. This right is a legal entitlement to a specific quantity of water for a specific purpose and is not dependent on land ownership adjacent to the water source. In contrast, water uses for purposes like domestic use and stock watering that were established before 1909 may be recognized as vested rights, which are based on common law riparian principles. However, for such a pre-1909 right to be legally enforceable against a junior, permitted water right holder, it must typically be confirmed through a formal court process known as a general stream adjudication. Without a court decree confirming the existence, priority date, and extent of the pre-1909 vested right, the modern, state-issued permit is the controlling legal instrument. Therefore, a landowner with a valid, current OWRD permit has a legally superior right to the water over a landowner with an unadjudicated historical claim, even if that historical use predates the permit. The holder of the unadjudicated claim bears the burden of initiating legal proceedings to have their vested right formally recognized.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Assessment of the situation shows that Anya, a homeowner in Eugene, Oregon, has a mortgage with a federally chartered bank. Her mortgage instrument contains all standard clauses. Facing financial difficulty, she sells her property to a real estate investor, Wei, under a land sale contract without notifying her lender or obtaining their approval. Six months later, the lender discovers the unapproved transfer of interest. Which clause most specifically grants the lender the right to demand immediate payment of the entire remaining loan balance due to this unapproved transfer?
Correct
This is a conceptual question and does not require a mathematical calculation. The scenario described involves the transfer of an interest in a property without the lender’s prior consent, which specifically triggers the alienation clause, commonly known as the due-on-sale clause. This clause is a standard component of mortgage instruments in Oregon and grants the lender the right, but not the obligation, to declare the entire outstanding loan balance immediately due and payable upon the sale or transfer of the property securing the loan. The primary purpose of this clause is to protect the lender’s security interest by preventing the loan from being assumed by a potentially less creditworthy buyer and allowing the lender to adjust the interest rate to current market rates. While the lender’s remedy is to accelerate the loan, the specific provision that gives them this right based on the transfer of title is the alienation clause. The acceleration clause is a broader term that allows the lender to demand full payment upon any default, such as missed payments, failure to pay taxes, or, in this case, an unapproved transfer of title. However, the alienation clause is the precise contractual trigger for this specific event. The defeasance clause is unrelated; it requires the lender to release the mortgage lien once the borrower has paid the debt in full. A prepayment penalty clause is also irrelevant here, as it pertains to fees charged for paying off a loan earlier than scheduled, not for an unauthorized transfer of title.
Incorrect
This is a conceptual question and does not require a mathematical calculation. The scenario described involves the transfer of an interest in a property without the lender’s prior consent, which specifically triggers the alienation clause, commonly known as the due-on-sale clause. This clause is a standard component of mortgage instruments in Oregon and grants the lender the right, but not the obligation, to declare the entire outstanding loan balance immediately due and payable upon the sale or transfer of the property securing the loan. The primary purpose of this clause is to protect the lender’s security interest by preventing the loan from being assumed by a potentially less creditworthy buyer and allowing the lender to adjust the interest rate to current market rates. While the lender’s remedy is to accelerate the loan, the specific provision that gives them this right based on the transfer of title is the alienation clause. The acceleration clause is a broader term that allows the lender to demand full payment upon any default, such as missed payments, failure to pay taxes, or, in this case, an unapproved transfer of title. However, the alienation clause is the precise contractual trigger for this specific event. The defeasance clause is unrelated; it requires the lender to release the mortgage lien once the borrower has paid the debt in full. A prepayment penalty clause is also irrelevant here, as it pertains to fees charged for paying off a loan earlier than scheduled, not for an unauthorized transfer of title.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
An analysis of the title report for a property in a Bend, Oregon subdivision established in 1952 reveals a restrictive covenant. This covenant stipulates that “no structure of a temporary character, trailer, basement, tent, shack, garage, barn, or other outbuilding shall be used on any lot at any time as a residence either temporarily or permanently, nor shall any structure of a secondary character be moved onto any of the lots.” The local zoning ordinance for this area, updated last year, permits the placement and residential use of Accessory Dwelling Units (ADUs) that meet specific city criteria. A property owner, Mateo, wishes to build a code-compliant ADU. Which statement most accurately describes the legal relationship between the covenant and the zoning ordinance?
Correct
The logical conclusion is that the covenant is void due to its discriminatory nature. Under both federal and Oregon state law, deed restrictions that discriminate based on race are illegal and have no legal effect. Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 93.270 explicitly declares that any provision in an instrument affecting real property which restricts occupancy based on race is void. Therefore, the covenant is not merely unenforceable through non-action, nor does it require a formal amendment to be invalidated; it is legally null from the outset. Restrictive covenants, often found in a subdivision’s Covenants, Conditions, and Restrictions (CC&Rs), are private agreements that limit the use of property. While generally enforceable to maintain neighborhood standards, they cannot violate the law or public policy. The Federal Fair Housing Act of 1968 prohibits discrimination in housing based on protected classes, including race. Any covenant that contravenes this act is illegal. Oregon law reinforces this protection. Specifically, ORS 93.270 renders any provision in a deed or other real property instrument void if it attempts to restrict conveyance or occupancy on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, and other protected classes. The term “void” is critical; it means the provision is treated as if it never existed. It is not simply “unenforceable,” which might imply it could be enforced under different circumstances. It is a legal nullity. Therefore, the covenant’s existence in the historical documents has no bearing on the current owner’s rights. It does not need to be formally removed by the homeowners’ association to be invalid, nor is its invalidity dependent on a history of non-enforcement (laches). Its illegality makes it automatically void.
Incorrect
The logical conclusion is that the covenant is void due to its discriminatory nature. Under both federal and Oregon state law, deed restrictions that discriminate based on race are illegal and have no legal effect. Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 93.270 explicitly declares that any provision in an instrument affecting real property which restricts occupancy based on race is void. Therefore, the covenant is not merely unenforceable through non-action, nor does it require a formal amendment to be invalidated; it is legally null from the outset. Restrictive covenants, often found in a subdivision’s Covenants, Conditions, and Restrictions (CC&Rs), are private agreements that limit the use of property. While generally enforceable to maintain neighborhood standards, they cannot violate the law or public policy. The Federal Fair Housing Act of 1968 prohibits discrimination in housing based on protected classes, including race. Any covenant that contravenes this act is illegal. Oregon law reinforces this protection. Specifically, ORS 93.270 renders any provision in a deed or other real property instrument void if it attempts to restrict conveyance or occupancy on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, and other protected classes. The term “void” is critical; it means the provision is treated as if it never existed. It is not simply “unenforceable,” which might imply it could be enforced under different circumstances. It is a legal nullity. Therefore, the covenant’s existence in the historical documents has no bearing on the current owner’s rights. It does not need to be formally removed by the homeowners’ association to be invalid, nor is its invalidity dependent on a history of non-enforcement (laches). Its illegality makes it automatically void.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
An assessment of a broker’s digital marketing strategy in Eugene, Oregon, reveals a series of blog posts about local neighborhood trends. One post focuses on a traditionally child-free, upscale neighborhood. The broker, Mei, presents data showing a recent, significant increase in home sales to families with young children. She follows this data with an analysis suggesting that the increased demand on local school resources and parks could lead to property tax hikes and a potential stagnation or decline in the rapid property value appreciation seen in previous years. The post concludes by stating it may be a “strategic time for current, long-time residents to sell.” Under Oregon law, which prohibited practice do Mei’s actions most accurately represent?
Correct
The correct answer is determined by analyzing the specific action and its intended or likely effect under fair housing laws. The practice described is blockbusting. Blockbusting, also known as panic peddling, occurs when a real estate licensee induces or attempts to induce any person to sell or rent any dwelling by representations regarding the entry or prospective entry into the neighborhood of a person or persons of a particular race, color, religion, sex, familial status, national origin, or disability. In this scenario, the broker, Mei, published content that explicitly linked a demographic shift—the increasing presence of families with young children (a protected class under familial status)—with a negative economic forecast for property values. By suggesting that property values might “stagnate or decline” and that it is a “strategic time to sell,” she is creating a sense of urgency or panic among current homeowners. The representation is that the changing composition of the neighborhood will negatively affect their financial investment. This is the textbook definition of blockbusting. It is not steering, as steering involves directing prospective buyers or renters to or away from certain neighborhoods based on their protected class characteristics. It is not redlining, which is the discriminatory practice of refusing to provide loans or insurance in specific geographic areas. The action is not a permissible, objective market analysis because it weaponizes demographic data against a protected class to solicit listings, which is a clear violation of both federal and Oregon fair housing laws under ORS Chapter 659A.
Incorrect
The correct answer is determined by analyzing the specific action and its intended or likely effect under fair housing laws. The practice described is blockbusting. Blockbusting, also known as panic peddling, occurs when a real estate licensee induces or attempts to induce any person to sell or rent any dwelling by representations regarding the entry or prospective entry into the neighborhood of a person or persons of a particular race, color, religion, sex, familial status, national origin, or disability. In this scenario, the broker, Mei, published content that explicitly linked a demographic shift—the increasing presence of families with young children (a protected class under familial status)—with a negative economic forecast for property values. By suggesting that property values might “stagnate or decline” and that it is a “strategic time to sell,” she is creating a sense of urgency or panic among current homeowners. The representation is that the changing composition of the neighborhood will negatively affect their financial investment. This is the textbook definition of blockbusting. It is not steering, as steering involves directing prospective buyers or renters to or away from certain neighborhoods based on their protected class characteristics. It is not redlining, which is the discriminatory practice of refusing to provide loans or insurance in specific geographic areas. The action is not a permissible, objective market analysis because it weaponizes demographic data against a protected class to solicit listings, which is a clear violation of both federal and Oregon fair housing laws under ORS Chapter 659A.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider a scenario where Kenji is a real estate broker licensed under Amelia, the sole principal broker of a small brokerage in Eugene, Oregon. While Amelia is on a remote, month-long trek with no communication, the Oregon Real Estate Agency’s online system shows her principal broker license has become inactive due to a failure to renew. Kenji has a transaction scheduled to close in two days that requires a disbursement from the firm’s clients’ trust account. What is the direct legal consequence for Kenji and his required course of action according to Oregon license law?
Correct
The correct conclusion is that the broker’s license is automatically rendered inactive. According to Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) 863-014-0060, a real estate broker’s license becomes inactive immediately and automatically if the principal real estate broker under whom they are licensed becomes inactive. A broker is only authorized to conduct professional real estate activity under the supervision of an active principal broker. Without an active principal broker, the associated broker has no legal authority to represent clients, manage transactions, or perform any other activity for which a license is required. This means the broker cannot proceed with any pending closings, sign new listing agreements, or even hold themselves out as an active real estate agent. The responsibility for the clients’ trust account lies solely with the principal broker, and an associated broker has no independent authority to disburse funds from it. The only legally permissible course of action is to halt all activities and inform all affected parties of the situation. The broker must then take steps to transfer their license to a new active principal broker to reactivate their license before resuming any professional real estate activity. There is no grace period, and attempting to complete transactions, even with client consent, would constitute unlicensed activity.
Incorrect
The correct conclusion is that the broker’s license is automatically rendered inactive. According to Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) 863-014-0060, a real estate broker’s license becomes inactive immediately and automatically if the principal real estate broker under whom they are licensed becomes inactive. A broker is only authorized to conduct professional real estate activity under the supervision of an active principal broker. Without an active principal broker, the associated broker has no legal authority to represent clients, manage transactions, or perform any other activity for which a license is required. This means the broker cannot proceed with any pending closings, sign new listing agreements, or even hold themselves out as an active real estate agent. The responsibility for the clients’ trust account lies solely with the principal broker, and an associated broker has no independent authority to disburse funds from it. The only legally permissible course of action is to halt all activities and inform all affected parties of the situation. The broker must then take steps to transfer their license to a new active principal broker to reactivate their license before resuming any professional real estate activity. There is no grace period, and attempting to complete transactions, even with client consent, would constitute unlicensed activity.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Assessment of a recent property transaction in Bend, Oregon, highlights a critical distinction in title insurance coverage. Amara purchased a residential property and secured a standard owner’s title insurance policy at closing. Six months later, her neighbor, Kai, presented a certified survey revealing that his fence encroaches five feet onto Amara’s property, an issue that existed at the time of purchase but was not noted in the public land records. Amara promptly filed a claim with her title insurance company to cover the potential loss in value or the cost of resolving the encroachment. Considering the typical provisions of a standard owner’s title insurance policy in Oregon, what is the most probable outcome of Amara’s claim?
Correct
The claim will be denied. The fundamental purpose of a standard owner’s title insurance policy is to indemnify the insured against financial loss arising from defects in the title that are a matter of public record and existed prior to the policy’s effective date. It is a retrospective form of insurance, looking backward at the chain of title as documented in public records. A standard policy, such as the American Land Title Association (ALTA) Owner’s Policy, contains a list of standard exceptions. These typically include rights or claims of parties in physical possession of the property, facts that an accurate and complete survey would disclose, unrecorded easements, and other matters not shown by the public records. In this scenario, the neighbor’s fence encroachment is a physical condition that would have been revealed by a survey but is not part of the recorded chain of title. Because it falls under the standard survey exception, the title insurance company is not obligated to cover the loss under a standard policy. To obtain coverage for such off-record risks, a buyer would typically need to purchase an extended coverage policy, which often requires a current survey and involves the removal of some or all of the standard exceptions.
Incorrect
The claim will be denied. The fundamental purpose of a standard owner’s title insurance policy is to indemnify the insured against financial loss arising from defects in the title that are a matter of public record and existed prior to the policy’s effective date. It is a retrospective form of insurance, looking backward at the chain of title as documented in public records. A standard policy, such as the American Land Title Association (ALTA) Owner’s Policy, contains a list of standard exceptions. These typically include rights or claims of parties in physical possession of the property, facts that an accurate and complete survey would disclose, unrecorded easements, and other matters not shown by the public records. In this scenario, the neighbor’s fence encroachment is a physical condition that would have been revealed by a survey but is not part of the recorded chain of title. Because it falls under the standard survey exception, the title insurance company is not obligated to cover the loss under a standard policy. To obtain coverage for such off-record risks, a buyer would typically need to purchase an extended coverage policy, which often requires a current survey and involves the removal of some or all of the standard exceptions.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Assessment of a broker’s conduct often requires navigating the intricate relationship between fiduciary duties owed to current and former clients. Consider this situation: Broker Mei previously represented Alex in a property search. During that representation, Alex confidentially shared that he was expecting a significant inheritance within the year. The agency relationship with Alex ended without a transaction. Six months later, Mei is the listing agent for a seller, Kenji. Alex, now unrepresented, submits an offer on Kenji’s property that is substantially below the asking price, accompanied by a letter mentioning a tight budget. Based on Oregon real estate law, how must Mei handle the knowledge of Alex’s pending inheritance?
Correct
The core legal and ethical principle at play is the enduring nature of the fiduciary duty of confidentiality. Under Oregon law, specifically outlined in statutes like ORS 696.805, a real estate broker’s duty to maintain the confidential information of a client continues even after the agency relationship has terminated. In this scenario, the broker, Mei, learned about the buyer’s, Alex’s, personal financial situation (the pending inheritance) during a prior, separate agency relationship. This information is considered confidential because it was not publicly available and was shared within the context of that specific client relationship. When Alex makes an offer on a property listed by Mei’s new client, Kenji, Mei’s duty of confidentiality to her former client, Alex, remains fully intact. Her fiduciary duties to her current client, Kenji, include loyalty, obedience, disclosure of material facts, and reasonable care. However, the duty of disclosure does not obligate her to reveal confidential information obtained from a past client. The buyer’s financial capacity is a material consideration, but the specific source of those funds, learned under a promise of confidentiality in a past transaction, is protected. Disclosing the inheritance to Kenji would constitute a direct breach of Mei’s perpetual duty of confidentiality to Alex. Therefore, Mei must not disclose this information. Her proper course of action is to present Alex’s offer to Kenji and advise Kenji based on the terms of the offer itself, without revealing the confidential information she possesses about Alex’s financial prospects.
Incorrect
The core legal and ethical principle at play is the enduring nature of the fiduciary duty of confidentiality. Under Oregon law, specifically outlined in statutes like ORS 696.805, a real estate broker’s duty to maintain the confidential information of a client continues even after the agency relationship has terminated. In this scenario, the broker, Mei, learned about the buyer’s, Alex’s, personal financial situation (the pending inheritance) during a prior, separate agency relationship. This information is considered confidential because it was not publicly available and was shared within the context of that specific client relationship. When Alex makes an offer on a property listed by Mei’s new client, Kenji, Mei’s duty of confidentiality to her former client, Alex, remains fully intact. Her fiduciary duties to her current client, Kenji, include loyalty, obedience, disclosure of material facts, and reasonable care. However, the duty of disclosure does not obligate her to reveal confidential information obtained from a past client. The buyer’s financial capacity is a material consideration, but the specific source of those funds, learned under a promise of confidentiality in a past transaction, is protected. Disclosing the inheritance to Kenji would constitute a direct breach of Mei’s perpetual duty of confidentiality to Alex. Therefore, Mei must not disclose this information. Her proper course of action is to present Alex’s offer to Kenji and advise Kenji based on the terms of the offer itself, without revealing the confidential information she possesses about Alex’s financial prospects.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Broker Mei is the principal broker for a small brokerage in Portland. She is acting as a disclosed limited agent for seller, Mr. Garcia, and buyer, Ms. Lin, in the same transaction. During a private conversation, Ms. Lin confides in Mei that she is under a tight deadline to move due to a job relocation and is authorized by her employer to offer up to 10% above the asking price if needed to secure the property quickly. Later, Mr. Garcia receives Ms. Lin’s initial offer, which is at the asking price, and asks Mei if she thinks the buyer has any flexibility to increase the offer. According to Oregon law governing agency relationships, what is Mei’s primary responsibility in this specific moment?
Correct
The situation described involves a broker acting as a disclosed limited agent, which is Oregon’s term for a dual agent. Under Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) Chapter 696, a real estate licensee may act as a disclosed limited agent for both the seller and the buyer in a real estate transaction, but only with the prior written consent of both parties. When acting in this capacity, the agent’s fiduciary duties are modified. While the agent still owes duties of good faith, fair dealing, and accounting for all funds, the duties of undivided loyalty and full disclosure are limited. Specifically, a disclosed limited agent must not disclose confidential information obtained from one party to the other, unless that disclosure is authorized in writing. Confidential information includes the party’s motivation to buy or sell, the price they are willing to accept or pay, and any other information the party has designated as confidential. In this scenario, the buyer’s statement about their financial capacity and willingness to pay a higher price is confidential information. The agent’s primary obligation is to maintain that confidentiality. Disclosing this to the seller would breach the agent’s duty to the buyer and violate the principle of impartiality required of a disclosed limited agent. The agent cannot advocate for one party to the detriment of the other. Therefore, the agent must refrain from revealing the buyer’s financial position and instead facilitate the negotiation process neutrally.
Incorrect
The situation described involves a broker acting as a disclosed limited agent, which is Oregon’s term for a dual agent. Under Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) Chapter 696, a real estate licensee may act as a disclosed limited agent for both the seller and the buyer in a real estate transaction, but only with the prior written consent of both parties. When acting in this capacity, the agent’s fiduciary duties are modified. While the agent still owes duties of good faith, fair dealing, and accounting for all funds, the duties of undivided loyalty and full disclosure are limited. Specifically, a disclosed limited agent must not disclose confidential information obtained from one party to the other, unless that disclosure is authorized in writing. Confidential information includes the party’s motivation to buy or sell, the price they are willing to accept or pay, and any other information the party has designated as confidential. In this scenario, the buyer’s statement about their financial capacity and willingness to pay a higher price is confidential information. The agent’s primary obligation is to maintain that confidentiality. Disclosing this to the seller would breach the agent’s duty to the buyer and violate the principle of impartiality required of a disclosed limited agent. The agent cannot advocate for one party to the detriment of the other. Therefore, the agent must refrain from revealing the buyer’s financial position and instead facilitate the negotiation process neutrally.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider a complex title situation in Portland. Anya, believing she was the sole heir, sold a parcel of land to Ben using a statutory warranty deed. Unbeknownst to both, a previously unknown will meant Anya only held a 50% undivided interest at the time of the conveyance. Six months after the sale closed, the other 50% owner passed away, and their will validly devised the remaining 50% interest to Anya. Under Oregon law, what is the status of Ben’s ownership interest in the property immediately after Anya inherits the remaining share?
Correct
The legal principle at the heart of this scenario is the doctrine of after-acquired title, which is a crucial component of Oregon real estate law, particularly in the context of deeds that contain warranties of title. When a grantor conveys property using a statutory warranty deed, as defined under Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) 93.850, they are making several legally binding promises, or covenants, to the grantee. These covenants include the covenant of seisin, which is a promise that the grantor owns the estate they are purporting to convey. If the grantor does not actually own the full title at the time of the conveyance but later acquires it, the doctrine of after-acquired title comes into effect. This common law doctrine, upheld in Oregon, provides that the title, once acquired by the grantor, automatically passes to the grantee to make the original conveyance whole. It operates by estoppel, preventing the grantor from claiming that the original deed was invalid. The transfer of the after-acquired interest to the grantee is automatic and occurs by operation of law at the moment the grantor obtains the previously missing title. It does not require any new deed, court action, or legal proceeding initiated by the grantee to perfect their title. The original warranty deed is essentially self-curing in this situation.
Incorrect
The legal principle at the heart of this scenario is the doctrine of after-acquired title, which is a crucial component of Oregon real estate law, particularly in the context of deeds that contain warranties of title. When a grantor conveys property using a statutory warranty deed, as defined under Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) 93.850, they are making several legally binding promises, or covenants, to the grantee. These covenants include the covenant of seisin, which is a promise that the grantor owns the estate they are purporting to convey. If the grantor does not actually own the full title at the time of the conveyance but later acquires it, the doctrine of after-acquired title comes into effect. This common law doctrine, upheld in Oregon, provides that the title, once acquired by the grantor, automatically passes to the grantee to make the original conveyance whole. It operates by estoppel, preventing the grantor from claiming that the original deed was invalid. The transfer of the after-acquired interest to the grantee is automatic and occurs by operation of law at the moment the grantor obtains the previously missing title. It does not require any new deed, court action, or legal proceeding initiated by the grantee to perfect their title. The original warranty deed is essentially self-curing in this situation.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
An Oregon real estate broker, Mei, is preparing a Competitive Market Analysis (CMA) for a unique rural property with an unpermitted artist’s studio. The seller, Mr. Chen, is adamant that the listing price should be based primarily on a significantly higher-priced active listing in a neighboring, more desirable school district. The few available sold comparables in the immediate area suggest a much lower value. Assessment of this situation shows Mei’s primary obligation under Oregon Administrative Rules is to perform which of the following actions?
Correct
The core responsibility of a real estate licensee preparing a Competitive Market Analysis in Oregon is governed by OAR 863-015-0190. This rule requires the analysis to be a competent, objective, and unbiased opinion of value based on sound market data. While a licensee has a fiduciary duty to their client, this does not extend to creating a misleading or unsupported valuation to meet a client’s price expectations. The strongest indicators of market value are recently sold comparable properties. Active listings reflect the current competition and asking prices, while expired listings can indicate a price ceiling the market will not support. A proper CMA involves selecting the most relevant comparables and making justifiable, documented adjustments for differences in features, location, and condition. The final analysis must include a clear statement that it is not an appraisal and has not been prepared under USPAP guidelines, along with the other required disclosures. The licensee’s professional judgment and adherence to these standards are paramount, even if the resulting value conclusion is not what the seller wishes to hear. The primary duty is to provide a good faith, realistic analysis to help the client make an informed decision, rather than simply validating a desired price.
Incorrect
The core responsibility of a real estate licensee preparing a Competitive Market Analysis in Oregon is governed by OAR 863-015-0190. This rule requires the analysis to be a competent, objective, and unbiased opinion of value based on sound market data. While a licensee has a fiduciary duty to their client, this does not extend to creating a misleading or unsupported valuation to meet a client’s price expectations. The strongest indicators of market value are recently sold comparable properties. Active listings reflect the current competition and asking prices, while expired listings can indicate a price ceiling the market will not support. A proper CMA involves selecting the most relevant comparables and making justifiable, documented adjustments for differences in features, location, and condition. The final analysis must include a clear statement that it is not an appraisal and has not been prepared under USPAP guidelines, along with the other required disclosures. The licensee’s professional judgment and adherence to these standards are paramount, even if the resulting value conclusion is not what the seller wishes to hear. The primary duty is to provide a good faith, realistic analysis to help the client make an informed decision, rather than simply validating a desired price.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Anika, a licensed property manager in Eugene, Oregon, works under the supervision of principal broker Kenji. Anika denies a rental application from Mr. Chen, explicitly stating that the owner’s policy is to not accept tenants who use Section 8 housing choice vouchers as part of their income. Mr. Chen believes this is discriminatory. Based on Oregon law, which of the following statements most accurately analyzes the potential enforcement actions and liabilities?
Correct
No mathematical calculation is required for this question. Oregon’s fair housing laws, enforced primarily by the Bureau of Labor and Industries (BOLI), provide robust protections against discrimination in housing transactions. These laws expand upon federal protections by explicitly prohibiting discrimination based on source of income, marital status, sexual orientation, and gender identity, in addition to the federally protected classes. When a person believes they have been discriminated against, they have one year from the date of the alleged discriminatory act to file a formal complaint with BOLI’s Civil Rights Division. Upon receiving a complaint, BOLI will conduct a neutral investigation to determine if there is substantial evidence of a violation. This process often includes attempts at conciliation to reach a voluntary settlement between the parties. If conciliation fails and substantial evidence is found, BOLI may issue formal charges. The case can then proceed to an administrative hearing or, at the election of either party, to a state circuit court. A critical concept in real estate practice is vicarious liability. Under Oregon law, a principal real estate broker is responsible for the actions and conduct of all brokers and property managers associated with them. This means if a property manager engages in a discriminatory act, the supervising principal broker can be held liable for that violation, regardless of whether they had direct knowledge of or personally participated in the specific act. This underscores the importance of proper training, supervision, and policy implementation within a brokerage.
Incorrect
No mathematical calculation is required for this question. Oregon’s fair housing laws, enforced primarily by the Bureau of Labor and Industries (BOLI), provide robust protections against discrimination in housing transactions. These laws expand upon federal protections by explicitly prohibiting discrimination based on source of income, marital status, sexual orientation, and gender identity, in addition to the federally protected classes. When a person believes they have been discriminated against, they have one year from the date of the alleged discriminatory act to file a formal complaint with BOLI’s Civil Rights Division. Upon receiving a complaint, BOLI will conduct a neutral investigation to determine if there is substantial evidence of a violation. This process often includes attempts at conciliation to reach a voluntary settlement between the parties. If conciliation fails and substantial evidence is found, BOLI may issue formal charges. The case can then proceed to an administrative hearing or, at the election of either party, to a state circuit court. A critical concept in real estate practice is vicarious liability. Under Oregon law, a principal real estate broker is responsible for the actions and conduct of all brokers and property managers associated with them. This means if a property manager engages in a discriminatory act, the supervising principal broker can be held liable for that violation, regardless of whether they had direct knowledge of or personally participated in the specific act. This underscores the importance of proper training, supervision, and policy implementation within a brokerage.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
For twelve years, Anya regularly used a well-defined dirt path across her neighbor Leo’s large, unfenced rural property to access a public river for fishing. Leo was aware of Anya’s use and would occasionally wave as she passed, but they never discussed her use of the path, and no permission was ever formally granted or denied. Leo recently sold his property to Mei, who, desiring complete privacy, immediately constructed a fence that blocked the path. Anya intends to file a lawsuit to claim a right to continue using the path. Assessment of this conflict reveals a primary challenge for Anya’s claim. What is the most significant legal obstacle Anya must overcome to successfully establish a prescriptive easement under Oregon law?
Correct
To establish a prescriptive easement in Oregon, a claimant must demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence that their use of another’s land was open, notorious, adverse, and continuous for a period of ten years, as codified in ORS 105.620. The element of “adverse” use, or use under a claim of right, is often the most difficult to prove and is central to this legal analysis. In Oregon, courts often apply a presumption that the use of unenclosed, wild, or vacant land is permissive, stemming from neighborly courtesy, rather than adverse. This presumption places a heightened burden on the claimant. The claimant cannot simply rely on the landowner’s silence or lack of objection. They must provide affirmative evidence that their use was not merely with the owner’s tacit permission but was instead an assertion of their own right, hostile to the title of the true owner. For instance, evidence of maintaining the path, communicating a claim of right to the owner, or using the path in a way that clearly indicates a non-permissive claim could help rebut this presumption. Without such evidence, a court is likely to find the use was permissive, which defeats the claim for a prescriptive easement, regardless of how long the use occurred.
Incorrect
To establish a prescriptive easement in Oregon, a claimant must demonstrate by clear and convincing evidence that their use of another’s land was open, notorious, adverse, and continuous for a period of ten years, as codified in ORS 105.620. The element of “adverse” use, or use under a claim of right, is often the most difficult to prove and is central to this legal analysis. In Oregon, courts often apply a presumption that the use of unenclosed, wild, or vacant land is permissive, stemming from neighborly courtesy, rather than adverse. This presumption places a heightened burden on the claimant. The claimant cannot simply rely on the landowner’s silence or lack of objection. They must provide affirmative evidence that their use was not merely with the owner’s tacit permission but was instead an assertion of their own right, hostile to the title of the true owner. For instance, evidence of maintaining the path, communicating a claim of right to the owner, or using the path in a way that clearly indicates a non-permissive claim could help rebut this presumption. Without such evidence, a court is likely to find the use was permissive, which defeats the claim for a prescriptive easement, regardless of how long the use occurred.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
An assessment of a specific lease clause and the subsequent actions by the parties reveals a potential contractual conflict. Lian, a property owner in Eugene, Oregon, enters into a two-year residential lease with her tenant, Marco. The lease includes a “Right to Purchase” clause stating that if Lian receives a bona fide offer to buy the property during the lease term, Marco will have 72 hours to match the offer. The lease specifies that Marco’s rent includes an additional $150 per month as consideration for this right. One year into the lease, Lian decides to sell the property to her cousin for a favorable price without listing it publicly. She signs a purchase agreement with her cousin. Upon discovering this, Marco asserts he has the right to buy the property on the same terms offered to the cousin. Based on Oregon contract law, what is the most accurate analysis of Marco’s position?
Correct
The core of this scenario revolves around the legal distinction between an Option to Purchase and a Right of First Refusal (ROFR). An option contract grants a party the exclusive right to purchase a property at a predetermined price within a specified time, regardless of other offers. It is a unilateral contract binding the seller. In contrast, a Right of First Refusal is a conditional right. It does not obligate the owner to sell, but if the owner decides to sell and receives a bona fide offer from a third party, the holder of the ROFR has the right to match that offer’s terms. In this case, the clause is a Right of First Refusal, not an option, because the purchase mechanism is triggered by a third-party offer, which the tenant then has the right to match. The purchase price is not fixed in advance but is determined by the external offer. The additional monthly payment serves as valuable consideration, making the ROFR a binding contractual right and not merely an illusory promise. When the landlord decided to sell the property to her nephew, this action constituted a manifestation of her intent to sell. Even though the offer was not from an arm’s-length third party on the open market, Oregon courts generally interpret ROFR clauses to prevent owners from circumventing them through non-standard sales, such as to relatives or for below-market prices. The landlord’s agreement with her nephew triggers the tenant’s right to be offered the property on the same terms and conditions as those offered to the nephew. The tenant’s right is therefore enforceable.
Incorrect
The core of this scenario revolves around the legal distinction between an Option to Purchase and a Right of First Refusal (ROFR). An option contract grants a party the exclusive right to purchase a property at a predetermined price within a specified time, regardless of other offers. It is a unilateral contract binding the seller. In contrast, a Right of First Refusal is a conditional right. It does not obligate the owner to sell, but if the owner decides to sell and receives a bona fide offer from a third party, the holder of the ROFR has the right to match that offer’s terms. In this case, the clause is a Right of First Refusal, not an option, because the purchase mechanism is triggered by a third-party offer, which the tenant then has the right to match. The purchase price is not fixed in advance but is determined by the external offer. The additional monthly payment serves as valuable consideration, making the ROFR a binding contractual right and not merely an illusory promise. When the landlord decided to sell the property to her nephew, this action constituted a manifestation of her intent to sell. Even though the offer was not from an arm’s-length third party on the open market, Oregon courts generally interpret ROFR clauses to prevent owners from circumventing them through non-standard sales, such as to relatives or for below-market prices. The landlord’s agreement with her nephew triggers the tenant’s right to be offered the property on the same terms and conditions as those offered to the nephew. The tenant’s right is therefore enforceable.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
An investor, Kenji, acquires a 15-acre parcel of land in Oregon’s Yamhill County. The property is zoned Exclusive Farm Use (EFU). The land is currently leased for use as a low-yield hayfield. The soil and climate are exceptionally well-suited for growing Pinot noir grapes, and market analysis shows a commercial vineyard would be highly profitable. The parcel is also located directly adjacent to a city’s Urban Growth Boundary (UGB), and developers have expressed strong interest in acquiring the land for a high-density residential subdivision, which would represent the greatest financial return if it were possible. An appraiser is hired to determine the highest and best use of the property as of today. What conclusion should the appraiser reach?
Correct
The principle of highest and best use requires an analysis of four distinct criteria, applied sequentially. The proposed use must be legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and finally, maximally productive. In this scenario, the subject property is a 15-acre parcel zoned as Exclusive Farm Use (EFU) in Oregon. First, we test for legal permissibility. A high-density residential subdivision is not permitted under EFU zoning. While an Urban Growth Boundary (UGB) is nearby, any expansion or rezoning is speculative and cannot be assumed for a current valuation. Therefore, residential development fails this test. The current use as a hayfield is legally permissible. A commercial vineyard is also a legally permissible farm use within an EFU zone. Second, we test for physical possibility. The scenario indicates the land is suitable for both farming and development, so all potential uses are considered physically possible. Third, we test for financial feasibility. The uses that are legally permissible are the hayfield and the vineyard. The hayfield provides a minimal return. A commercial vineyard, given the supportive climate and soil, is described as financially viable and capable of generating a substantial return, thus passing this test. Fourth, we determine the maximally productive use among those that passed the previous tests. We compare the hayfield and the commercial vineyard. The vineyard is projected to generate a significantly higher economic return than the hayfield. Therefore, the commercial vineyard is the use that results in the highest value for the property. It is the only use that satisfies all four criteria: it is legally allowed under current EFU zoning, physically possible, financially viable, and provides the highest return of all permissible uses.
Incorrect
The principle of highest and best use requires an analysis of four distinct criteria, applied sequentially. The proposed use must be legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and finally, maximally productive. In this scenario, the subject property is a 15-acre parcel zoned as Exclusive Farm Use (EFU) in Oregon. First, we test for legal permissibility. A high-density residential subdivision is not permitted under EFU zoning. While an Urban Growth Boundary (UGB) is nearby, any expansion or rezoning is speculative and cannot be assumed for a current valuation. Therefore, residential development fails this test. The current use as a hayfield is legally permissible. A commercial vineyard is also a legally permissible farm use within an EFU zone. Second, we test for physical possibility. The scenario indicates the land is suitable for both farming and development, so all potential uses are considered physically possible. Third, we test for financial feasibility. The uses that are legally permissible are the hayfield and the vineyard. The hayfield provides a minimal return. A commercial vineyard, given the supportive climate and soil, is described as financially viable and capable of generating a substantial return, thus passing this test. Fourth, we determine the maximally productive use among those that passed the previous tests. We compare the hayfield and the commercial vineyard. The vineyard is projected to generate a significantly higher economic return than the hayfield. Therefore, the commercial vineyard is the use that results in the highest value for the property. It is the only use that satisfies all four criteria: it is legally allowed under current EFU zoning, physically possible, financially viable, and provides the highest return of all permissible uses.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Mateo financed the purchase of his primary residence in Bend, Oregon, with a standard residential trust deed. After a job loss, he defaulted on his loan payments. The lender, seeking to recover the outstanding debt, is evaluating its options under the Oregon Trust Deed Act. An assessment of the lender’s potential actions reveals which of the following outcomes regarding a deficiency judgment is accurate?
Correct
In Oregon, the ability of a lender to pursue a deficiency judgment after a foreclosure is heavily dependent on the type of foreclosure action taken and the nature of the security instrument. A deficiency judgment is a personal judgment against a borrower for the remaining balance of a loan after the security property has been sold at a foreclosure sale for less than the outstanding debt. The Oregon Trust Deed Act, specifically under Oregon Revised Statute 86.797, governs this process for properties secured by a trust deed. When a borrower defaults on a loan secured by a residential trust deed, the lender, or beneficiary, has two primary foreclosure options: a non-judicial foreclosure or a judicial foreclosure. If the lender elects to use the non-judicial foreclosure process, which is conducted by a trustee via a “trustee’s sale,” it is a faster and less expensive method. However, by choosing this streamlined path, the lender explicitly waives its right to seek a deficiency judgment against the borrower. This statutory prohibition is a critical protection for homeowners in Oregon. Conversely, if the lender chooses to proceed with a judicial foreclosure, which is a formal lawsuit that goes through the court system, they may retain the right to obtain a deficiency judgment. This path is significantly more time-consuming and costly for the lender. Therefore, the choice of foreclosure method is a strategic one for the lender, balancing the speed and cost of recovery against the possibility of pursuing the borrower for any shortfall.
Incorrect
In Oregon, the ability of a lender to pursue a deficiency judgment after a foreclosure is heavily dependent on the type of foreclosure action taken and the nature of the security instrument. A deficiency judgment is a personal judgment against a borrower for the remaining balance of a loan after the security property has been sold at a foreclosure sale for less than the outstanding debt. The Oregon Trust Deed Act, specifically under Oregon Revised Statute 86.797, governs this process for properties secured by a trust deed. When a borrower defaults on a loan secured by a residential trust deed, the lender, or beneficiary, has two primary foreclosure options: a non-judicial foreclosure or a judicial foreclosure. If the lender elects to use the non-judicial foreclosure process, which is conducted by a trustee via a “trustee’s sale,” it is a faster and less expensive method. However, by choosing this streamlined path, the lender explicitly waives its right to seek a deficiency judgment against the borrower. This statutory prohibition is a critical protection for homeowners in Oregon. Conversely, if the lender chooses to proceed with a judicial foreclosure, which is a formal lawsuit that goes through the court system, they may retain the right to obtain a deficiency judgment. This path is significantly more time-consuming and costly for the lender. Therefore, the choice of foreclosure method is a strategic one for the lender, balancing the speed and cost of recovery against the possibility of pursuing the borrower for any shortfall.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Assessment of a listing appointment reveals a unique challenge. Kenji is selling his unit in a four-unit, self-managed condominium in Eugene, Oregon. He informs his listing broker, Anya, that the homeowners’ association does not use a professional management company and has never prepared a formal resale certificate. Kenji suggests providing the buyer with the association’s bank statement and a copy of the bylaws instead. According to the Oregon Condominium Act, what is the most accurate guidance Anya should provide to Kenji regarding his disclosure obligations?
Correct
Under the Oregon Condominium Act, specifically ORS Chapter 100, the seller of a condominium unit is required to provide the purchaser with a comprehensive set of disclosure documents. A critical component of this package is the resale certificate, as detailed in ORS 100.480. The legal obligation to prepare and provide this certificate rests with the homeowners’ association, regardless of its size or whether it is professionally managed or self-managed. The law makes no exception for small associations. The resale certificate must contain specific, statutorily mandated information, including the amount of the periodic assessment and any unpaid assessments on the unit, other fees payable by the owner, any planned major capital expenditures, the amount of reserves for such expenditures, the association’s current financial statements, and a statement on any pending lawsuits or judgments against the association. Simply providing bank statements or meeting minutes is insufficient and does not meet the legal requirement. The association’s board of directors or an authorized officer must prepare and sign the certificate, certifying the information as accurate. The buyer’s five-business-day right of rescission begins only after they have received all the required documents, including a legally compliant resale certificate. Failure to provide it can lead to transaction delays and potential liability for the seller.
Incorrect
Under the Oregon Condominium Act, specifically ORS Chapter 100, the seller of a condominium unit is required to provide the purchaser with a comprehensive set of disclosure documents. A critical component of this package is the resale certificate, as detailed in ORS 100.480. The legal obligation to prepare and provide this certificate rests with the homeowners’ association, regardless of its size or whether it is professionally managed or self-managed. The law makes no exception for small associations. The resale certificate must contain specific, statutorily mandated information, including the amount of the periodic assessment and any unpaid assessments on the unit, other fees payable by the owner, any planned major capital expenditures, the amount of reserves for such expenditures, the association’s current financial statements, and a statement on any pending lawsuits or judgments against the association. Simply providing bank statements or meeting minutes is insufficient and does not meet the legal requirement. The association’s board of directors or an authorized officer must prepare and sign the certificate, certifying the information as accurate. The buyer’s five-business-day right of rescission begins only after they have received all the required documents, including a legally compliant resale certificate. Failure to provide it can lead to transaction delays and potential liability for the seller.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Four individuals—Amara, Ben, Chloe, and David—purchased a property in Deschutes County, Oregon, taking title on the deed as joint tenants with an express declaration of survivorship. Two years later, David unilaterally executed a bargain and sale deed to convey his interest to an outside party, Evelyn. The following year, Amara passed away, leaving a properly executed will that named her son, Felix, as the sole heir to all her real and personal property. Considering the principles of Oregon property law, what is the resulting ownership status of the property?
Correct
The initial ownership structure is a joint tenancy among four individuals: Amara, Ben, Chloe, and David. In a joint tenancy, each co-owner holds an equal and undivided interest, characterized by the four unities of time, title, interest, and possession. The defining feature is the right of survivorship. Each owner initially holds a \(1/4\) interest. When David sells his interest to Evelyn, this action severs the joint tenancy as it pertains to that specific \(1/4\) share because the unities of time and title are broken for the new owner. Evelyn becomes a tenant in common, holding a \(1/4\) interest relative to the other owners. The original joint tenancy, however, remains intact for the remaining original co-owners: Amara, Ben, and Chloe. They continue to be joint tenants with each other, holding a collective \(3/4\) interest. When Amara dies, the right of survivorship, which is a key element of her joint tenancy with Ben and Chloe, takes immediate legal effect. Her interest in the property automatically passes to the surviving joint tenants, Ben and Chloe, outside of probate. A will cannot defeat the right of survivorship. Therefore, Amara’s son, Felix, inherits no part of this specific property. Amara’s \(1/4\) interest is absorbed by Ben and Chloe, who now hold that original \(3/4\) interest together as the sole surviving joint tenants. The final state of the title is that Ben and Chloe hold a combined \(3/4\) interest as joint tenants with each other, while Evelyn holds her separate \(1/4\) interest as a tenant in common.
Incorrect
The initial ownership structure is a joint tenancy among four individuals: Amara, Ben, Chloe, and David. In a joint tenancy, each co-owner holds an equal and undivided interest, characterized by the four unities of time, title, interest, and possession. The defining feature is the right of survivorship. Each owner initially holds a \(1/4\) interest. When David sells his interest to Evelyn, this action severs the joint tenancy as it pertains to that specific \(1/4\) share because the unities of time and title are broken for the new owner. Evelyn becomes a tenant in common, holding a \(1/4\) interest relative to the other owners. The original joint tenancy, however, remains intact for the remaining original co-owners: Amara, Ben, and Chloe. They continue to be joint tenants with each other, holding a collective \(3/4\) interest. When Amara dies, the right of survivorship, which is a key element of her joint tenancy with Ben and Chloe, takes immediate legal effect. Her interest in the property automatically passes to the surviving joint tenants, Ben and Chloe, outside of probate. A will cannot defeat the right of survivorship. Therefore, Amara’s son, Felix, inherits no part of this specific property. Amara’s \(1/4\) interest is absorbed by Ben and Chloe, who now hold that original \(3/4\) interest together as the sole surviving joint tenants. The final state of the title is that Ben and Chloe hold a combined \(3/4\) interest as joint tenants with each other, while Evelyn holds her separate \(1/4\) interest as a tenant in common.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Amelia purchased a five-acre parcel in rural Clackamas County, Oregon, from Mr. Chen. She obtained a standard owner’s title insurance policy at closing. Six months after moving in, a neighboring farmer, Kai, informed Amelia that he has a valid prescriptive easement to use a dirt path across her property to access his back fields, a practice he and his family have maintained openly for over 15 years. This easement was never recorded in the county land records. When Amelia files a claim with her title insurance company, what is the most likely outcome regarding the company’s liability for this unrecorded prescriptive easement claim?
Correct
The analysis begins by identifying the type of title insurance policy Amelia received, which is a standard owner’s policy. The core issue is an unrecorded claim of a prescriptive easement. In Oregon, a prescriptive easement is established through long-term, open, notorious, adverse, and continuous use for a statutory period of ten years, and it does not need to be recorded in the public records to be legally valid. Standard owner’s title insurance policies are designed to protect against defects found within the public records. They contain a set of pre-printed, general exceptions for risks that a title search of public records alone would not disclose. One of the most common standard exceptions is for any facts, rights, interests, or claims that are not shown in the public records but could be discovered by a physical inspection of the property or by making an inquiry of persons in possession. The neighbor’s long-standing use of the path for access is precisely this type of unrecorded right. Because a physical inspection of the land or a conversation with the neighbor would have revealed the existence of the path and its use, this claim falls squarely within this standard policy exception. Consequently, the title insurance company has no obligation to defend the title against this claim or compensate for any loss in value under the terms of a standard policy. Coverage for such matters typically requires purchasing an American Land Title Association (ALTA) extended coverage policy, which omits or modifies certain standard exceptions, usually contingent upon a current property survey and inspection.
Incorrect
The analysis begins by identifying the type of title insurance policy Amelia received, which is a standard owner’s policy. The core issue is an unrecorded claim of a prescriptive easement. In Oregon, a prescriptive easement is established through long-term, open, notorious, adverse, and continuous use for a statutory period of ten years, and it does not need to be recorded in the public records to be legally valid. Standard owner’s title insurance policies are designed to protect against defects found within the public records. They contain a set of pre-printed, general exceptions for risks that a title search of public records alone would not disclose. One of the most common standard exceptions is for any facts, rights, interests, or claims that are not shown in the public records but could be discovered by a physical inspection of the property or by making an inquiry of persons in possession. The neighbor’s long-standing use of the path for access is precisely this type of unrecorded right. Because a physical inspection of the land or a conversation with the neighbor would have revealed the existence of the path and its use, this claim falls squarely within this standard policy exception. Consequently, the title insurance company has no obligation to defend the title against this claim or compensate for any loss in value under the terms of a standard policy. Coverage for such matters typically requires purchasing an American Land Title Association (ALTA) extended coverage policy, which omits or modifies certain standard exceptions, usually contingent upon a current property survey and inspection.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
An investor, Kai, purchases a parcel of land in rural Jackson County, Oregon, that is adjacent to a small, non-navigable creek. Kai intends to develop the property and wants to understand which water-related activities are permissible under his inherent riparian rights without needing to apply for a water right permit from the Oregon Water Resources Department (OWRD). Assessment of Kai’s plans reveals several potential uses for the creek water. Which of the following proposed actions most accurately falls within the scope of an exempt domestic use under Oregon’s water laws?
Correct
The correct action is the use of water for household needs and for irrigating a personal garden not exceeding one-half acre. Oregon water law operates under a dual system that recognizes limited riparian rights alongside a comprehensive prior appropriation system managed by the Oregon Water Resources Department (OWRD). The 1909 Water Rights Act established that for most uses, water rights are based on the principle of “first in time, first in right,” requiring a permit to appropriate water for a beneficial use. However, the law provides specific exemptions for certain uses that do not require a formal water right permit. The most significant of these is for domestic purposes. Under Oregon Revised Statutes, this exempt domestic use includes water for household needs, watering domestic animals, and irrigating a non-commercial lawn or garden up to one-half acre in size. This is a vested right tied to the riparian land itself. In contrast, any commercial or large-scale agricultural use, such as irrigating a ten-acre commercial orchard, is considered an appropriative use and legally requires a water right permit from the OWRD. Similarly, establishing a commercial bottling operation is an industrial use that requires a permit. The construction of structures like docks falls under different regulations, often involving the Division of State Lands, but the consumptive use of water for purposes beyond the domestic exemption is strictly governed by the OWRD’s permit system.
Incorrect
The correct action is the use of water for household needs and for irrigating a personal garden not exceeding one-half acre. Oregon water law operates under a dual system that recognizes limited riparian rights alongside a comprehensive prior appropriation system managed by the Oregon Water Resources Department (OWRD). The 1909 Water Rights Act established that for most uses, water rights are based on the principle of “first in time, first in right,” requiring a permit to appropriate water for a beneficial use. However, the law provides specific exemptions for certain uses that do not require a formal water right permit. The most significant of these is for domestic purposes. Under Oregon Revised Statutes, this exempt domestic use includes water for household needs, watering domestic animals, and irrigating a non-commercial lawn or garden up to one-half acre in size. This is a vested right tied to the riparian land itself. In contrast, any commercial or large-scale agricultural use, such as irrigating a ten-acre commercial orchard, is considered an appropriative use and legally requires a water right permit from the OWRD. Similarly, establishing a commercial bottling operation is an industrial use that requires a permit. The construction of structures like docks falls under different regulations, often involving the Division of State Lands, but the consumptive use of water for purposes beyond the domestic exemption is strictly governed by the OWRD’s permit system.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Alejandro owns a residential property in Eugene, Oregon, which is secured by a deed of trust. After facing financial hardship, he defaults on his loan payments. The beneficiary has initiated a non-judicial foreclosure, and a trustee’s sale is scheduled for 12 days from today. Alejandro has just secured enough funds to cover all his missed payments, accrued late fees, and the trustee’s expenses to date, but he cannot pay off the entire loan balance. He consults his real estate broker about his options. Based on the Oregon Trust Deed Act, what is the most accurate guidance the broker can provide?
Correct
This scenario involves the rights of a borrower (trustor) under the Oregon Trust Deed Act when facing a non-judicial foreclosure. In Oregon, a deed of trust is the most common security instrument for real estate loans. It involves three parties: the trustor (borrower), the beneficiary (lender), and the trustee (a neutral third party). When a trustor defaults on the loan, the beneficiary can instruct the trustee to initiate a non-judicial foreclosure, also known as a trustee’s sale. This process is governed by specific state statutes that provide certain protections for the borrower. One of the most critical rights is the right of reinstatement. According to Oregon law, specifically ORS 86.778, the trustor has the legal right to stop the foreclosure process by curing the default. This involves paying all past-due payments, late charges, and any costs and fees incurred by the lender in the foreclosure process. This right is not unlimited; it must be exercised at least five days before the date of the scheduled trustee’s sale. By reinstating the loan, the borrower brings the loan current, and the deed of trust is restored as if the default had never occurred. This is distinct from the right of redemption, which typically occurs after a foreclosure sale and is a feature of judicial foreclosures, not the non-judicial process used for trust deeds in this context. Furthermore, a key feature of non-judicial foreclosure on a residential trust deed in Oregon is that the lender is barred from seeking a deficiency judgment after the sale.
Incorrect
This scenario involves the rights of a borrower (trustor) under the Oregon Trust Deed Act when facing a non-judicial foreclosure. In Oregon, a deed of trust is the most common security instrument for real estate loans. It involves three parties: the trustor (borrower), the beneficiary (lender), and the trustee (a neutral third party). When a trustor defaults on the loan, the beneficiary can instruct the trustee to initiate a non-judicial foreclosure, also known as a trustee’s sale. This process is governed by specific state statutes that provide certain protections for the borrower. One of the most critical rights is the right of reinstatement. According to Oregon law, specifically ORS 86.778, the trustor has the legal right to stop the foreclosure process by curing the default. This involves paying all past-due payments, late charges, and any costs and fees incurred by the lender in the foreclosure process. This right is not unlimited; it must be exercised at least five days before the date of the scheduled trustee’s sale. By reinstating the loan, the borrower brings the loan current, and the deed of trust is restored as if the default had never occurred. This is distinct from the right of redemption, which typically occurs after a foreclosure sale and is a feature of judicial foreclosures, not the non-judicial process used for trust deeds in this context. Furthermore, a key feature of non-judicial foreclosure on a residential trust deed in Oregon is that the lender is barred from seeking a deficiency judgment after the sale.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Anika, the seller of a small commercial building in Eugene, Oregon, agrees to carry a promissory note for the buyer, Leo. The note, drafted by an attorney, stipulates that Leo will make monthly interest-only payments for five years. The final principal balloon payment will be the original loan amount plus or minus a sum equivalent to 10% of the difference between the original sale price and the property’s market value as determined by a certified appraiser at the end of the five-year term. What is the primary legal consequence of this provision on the promissory note?
Correct
The determination of the promissory note’s legal status is based on the requirements for negotiability under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), specifically Article 3, which is codified in Oregon law as ORS Chapter 73. One of the fundamental requirements for an instrument to be negotiable is that it must contain an unconditional promise to pay a “fixed amount of money,” also known as a “sum certain.” In the described scenario, the promissory note includes a provision that makes the final payment amount contingent upon the future appraised value of the property. Because this future value is unknown and not ascertainable from the face of the instrument at the time of its creation, the note fails to meet the “fixed amount” requirement. The total amount to be paid cannot be calculated with certainty from the document itself. Consequently, the instrument is classified as non-negotiable. While it remains a valid and legally enforceable contract between the original parties, the maker (borrower) and the payee (lender), its non-negotiable status has significant implications. It cannot be transferred to a third party in a way that would allow that third party to become a “holder in due course,” a status that provides protection against many legal defenses the original maker might have against the original payee. This lack of negotiability severely restricts the note’s marketability and liquidity.
Incorrect
The determination of the promissory note’s legal status is based on the requirements for negotiability under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), specifically Article 3, which is codified in Oregon law as ORS Chapter 73. One of the fundamental requirements for an instrument to be negotiable is that it must contain an unconditional promise to pay a “fixed amount of money,” also known as a “sum certain.” In the described scenario, the promissory note includes a provision that makes the final payment amount contingent upon the future appraised value of the property. Because this future value is unknown and not ascertainable from the face of the instrument at the time of its creation, the note fails to meet the “fixed amount” requirement. The total amount to be paid cannot be calculated with certainty from the document itself. Consequently, the instrument is classified as non-negotiable. While it remains a valid and legally enforceable contract between the original parties, the maker (borrower) and the payee (lender), its non-negotiable status has significant implications. It cannot be transferred to a third party in a way that would allow that third party to become a “holder in due course,” a status that provides protection against many legal defenses the original maker might have against the original payee. This lack of negotiability severely restricts the note’s marketability and liquidity.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Broker Kenji is representing Maya, a single mother seeking a three-bedroom home in a specific school district in Eugene, Oregon. Maya mentions she wants to be in a “vibrant, family-friendly area with lots of kids for her children to play with.” In response, Kenji exclusively curates a tour of homes within a new subdivision known for its high concentration of young families and a large community playground. He deliberately omits showing her several otherwise suitable and available listings in an adjacent, more established neighborhood within the same school district, which is known to be primarily occupied by older, retired residents. An assessment of Broker Kenji’s actions in relation to Oregon’s fair housing laws reveals which of the following?
Correct
The broker’s action constitutes illegal steering. Familial status, defined as having one or more individuals under 18 living with a parent or legal guardian, is a protected class under both the federal Fair Housing Act and Oregon’s fair housing laws (ORS Chapter 659A). Steering occurs when a real estate licensee influences a client’s housing choice by directing them toward or away from specific areas or properties based on their protected class. In this scenario, Broker Kenji, upon learning his client has children, intentionally limited the properties shown to her to a specific subdivision he perceived as suitable for families. By failing to show her all available properties that met her objective criteria (such as price range and size) in other demographically different areas, he restricted her housing choice based on her familial status. The broker’s intent, even if it was to be helpful and accommodate the client’s stated preference for a “family-friendly” area, is irrelevant. Fair housing laws are concerned with the effect of an action, not the motive behind it. The practice of steering, even when well-intentioned, perpetuates housing segregation. A broker’s duty is to provide comprehensive, unbiased information about all suitable properties and allow the client to make their own informed decision about which neighborhoods are desirable.
Incorrect
The broker’s action constitutes illegal steering. Familial status, defined as having one or more individuals under 18 living with a parent or legal guardian, is a protected class under both the federal Fair Housing Act and Oregon’s fair housing laws (ORS Chapter 659A). Steering occurs when a real estate licensee influences a client’s housing choice by directing them toward or away from specific areas or properties based on their protected class. In this scenario, Broker Kenji, upon learning his client has children, intentionally limited the properties shown to her to a specific subdivision he perceived as suitable for families. By failing to show her all available properties that met her objective criteria (such as price range and size) in other demographically different areas, he restricted her housing choice based on her familial status. The broker’s intent, even if it was to be helpful and accommodate the client’s stated preference for a “family-friendly” area, is irrelevant. Fair housing laws are concerned with the effect of an action, not the motive behind it. The practice of steering, even when well-intentioned, perpetuates housing segregation. A broker’s duty is to provide comprehensive, unbiased information about all suitable properties and allow the client to make their own informed decision about which neighborhoods are desirable.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Assessment of a co-ownership structure in Portland, Oregon reveals the following: Lin, Marco, and Anya acquired a commercial property, with the deed explicitly stating they hold title as “tenants in common.” The deed specifies their ownership interests as Lin holding a 50% share, Marco a 30% share, and Anya a 20% share. Tragically, Marco passes away, and his valid will names his son, David, as his sole heir. Under Oregon law, what is the direct legal consequence for the ownership of the property following Marco’s death?
Correct
This question does not require a mathematical calculation. The solution is based on the legal principles governing tenancy in common in Oregon. In Oregon, tenancy in common is a form of concurrent ownership where two or more persons hold separate fractional interests in the same property. These interests can be equal or unequal. A defining characteristic of this form of ownership is that there is no right of survivorship. This means that when one tenant in common dies, their interest in the property does not automatically transfer to the surviving co-tenants. Instead, the deceased co-tenant’s share is an asset of their estate. It is treated like any other property they owned and is subject to probate. The interest will be passed on to their heirs, as determined by their will, or if they die intestate (without a will), according to Oregon’s laws of intestate succession. The surviving tenants in common simply continue as co-owners alongside the new owner or owners who inherited the deceased’s share. Each co-tenant, including any new heir, retains the right to possess the entire property, and their ownership interest remains distinct and alienable. They can sell, devise, or otherwise transfer their individual share without the consent of the other co-owners.
Incorrect
This question does not require a mathematical calculation. The solution is based on the legal principles governing tenancy in common in Oregon. In Oregon, tenancy in common is a form of concurrent ownership where two or more persons hold separate fractional interests in the same property. These interests can be equal or unequal. A defining characteristic of this form of ownership is that there is no right of survivorship. This means that when one tenant in common dies, their interest in the property does not automatically transfer to the surviving co-tenants. Instead, the deceased co-tenant’s share is an asset of their estate. It is treated like any other property they owned and is subject to probate. The interest will be passed on to their heirs, as determined by their will, or if they die intestate (without a will), according to Oregon’s laws of intestate succession. The surviving tenants in common simply continue as co-owners alongside the new owner or owners who inherited the deceased’s share. Each co-tenant, including any new heir, retains the right to possess the entire property, and their ownership interest remains distinct and alienable. They can sell, devise, or otherwise transfer their individual share without the consent of the other co-owners.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider a scenario involving an Oregon real estate broker, Amara, and a property owner, Kenji. Kenji owns a parcel of land in Deschutes County. He and Amara have a phone call about her listing the property. Following the call, Kenji sends Amara an email stating: “Confirming our call. You are authorized to market my 5-acre parcel on Tumalo Road. I agree to a 6% commission upon a successful closing. Let’s get this sold.” Amara immediately begins marketing and procures a ready, willing, and able buyer who presents an offer that meets all of Kenji’s verbally stated terms. Kenji, however, changes his mind about selling and subsequently refuses to pay Amara any commission, arguing their agreement is invalid because they never signed a formal listing contract. In this situation, what is the legal status of Amara’s claim for a commission under Oregon law?
Correct
The core issue is whether Kenji’s email constitutes a written agreement sufficient to satisfy the Oregon Statute of Frauds for a real estate employment contract. According to Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 41.580(1)(g), an agreement authorizing a broker to sell real estate for a commission is void unless it is in writing and subscribed by the party to be charged. The party to be charged here is Kenji, as Amara is seeking to enforce the commission agreement against him. The statute does not mandate a single, formal contract. A memorandum or a series of communications, including emails, can satisfy the requirement. The key is whether the writing contains the essential terms of the agreement. In this scenario, the email identifies the parties (Amara and Kenji, implicitly), the subject matter of the employment (marketing his 5-acre parcel on Tumalo Road), and the consideration for the service (a 6% commission). Furthermore, the Oregon Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (UETA) gives legal effect to electronic records and electronic signatures. An email sent from a person’s account can serve as a “subscribed” writing. Because Kenji sent the email from his account authorizing the work and stating the commission, it serves as a writing subscribed by him. Therefore, Amara has a legally sufficient memorandum to enforce the commission agreement, even without a formal, wet-signed document. The agreement is not void for lack of a formal contract or for missing terms like a specific listing price, as the essential elements of the commission agreement itself are present.
Incorrect
The core issue is whether Kenji’s email constitutes a written agreement sufficient to satisfy the Oregon Statute of Frauds for a real estate employment contract. According to Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 41.580(1)(g), an agreement authorizing a broker to sell real estate for a commission is void unless it is in writing and subscribed by the party to be charged. The party to be charged here is Kenji, as Amara is seeking to enforce the commission agreement against him. The statute does not mandate a single, formal contract. A memorandum or a series of communications, including emails, can satisfy the requirement. The key is whether the writing contains the essential terms of the agreement. In this scenario, the email identifies the parties (Amara and Kenji, implicitly), the subject matter of the employment (marketing his 5-acre parcel on Tumalo Road), and the consideration for the service (a 6% commission). Furthermore, the Oregon Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (UETA) gives legal effect to electronic records and electronic signatures. An email sent from a person’s account can serve as a “subscribed” writing. Because Kenji sent the email from his account authorizing the work and stating the commission, it serves as a writing subscribed by him. Therefore, Amara has a legally sufficient memorandum to enforce the commission agreement, even without a formal, wet-signed document. The agreement is not void for lack of a formal contract or for missing terms like a specific listing price, as the essential elements of the commission agreement itself are present.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
An assessment of the legal relationship between a landlord and tenant in Eugene, Oregon, presents the following facts: Leo was a tenant under a written one-year lease that expired on August 31st. Leo did not vacate the premises. On September 2nd, Leo electronically transferred a full month’s rent to his landlord, Priya, who accepted the funds without comment. Under the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, what is the most accurate description of Leo’s tenancy status as of September 3rd?
Correct
The legal conclusion is that a month-to-month periodic tenancy has been established. The initial lease was an estate for years, defined by a specific start and end date. When this lease terminated on August 31st, and the tenant, Leo, remained in possession without the landlord’s explicit consent, his status immediately became a tenancy at sufferance. This is often called a holdover tenancy, where the tenant’s possession is wrongful, but their initial entry onto the property was lawful. The landlord, Priya, then had a choice: either initiate eviction proceedings to remove the tenant or consent to the continued occupancy. In this scenario, Priya’s affirmative act of accepting the rent payment for September constitutes implied consent to Leo’s continued possession. Under Oregon law, specifically the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, when a landlord accepts periodic rent from a holdover tenant, the tenancy at sufferance is extinguished and a new leasehold estate is created. Because the rent was paid for a monthly period, the law construes this as the creation of a month-to-month periodic tenancy. This new tenancy does not have a fixed end date and will continue to renew each month until either the landlord or the tenant provides the statutorily required written notice to terminate the agreement.
Incorrect
The legal conclusion is that a month-to-month periodic tenancy has been established. The initial lease was an estate for years, defined by a specific start and end date. When this lease terminated on August 31st, and the tenant, Leo, remained in possession without the landlord’s explicit consent, his status immediately became a tenancy at sufferance. This is often called a holdover tenancy, where the tenant’s possession is wrongful, but their initial entry onto the property was lawful. The landlord, Priya, then had a choice: either initiate eviction proceedings to remove the tenant or consent to the continued occupancy. In this scenario, Priya’s affirmative act of accepting the rent payment for September constitutes implied consent to Leo’s continued possession. Under Oregon law, specifically the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, when a landlord accepts periodic rent from a holdover tenant, the tenancy at sufferance is extinguished and a new leasehold estate is created. Because the rent was paid for a monthly period, the law construes this as the creation of a month-to-month periodic tenancy. This new tenancy does not have a fixed end date and will continue to renew each month until either the landlord or the tenant provides the statutorily required written notice to terminate the agreement.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
An assessment of a client’s financing for a residential property in Bend, Oregon, reveals a discrepancy between the agreed-upon sales price and the lender’s appraisal. The sales price is \(\$520,000\), but the property appraises for only \(\$500,000\). The lender’s commitment is for a conventional loan with a maximum loan-to-value (LTV) ratio of \(80\%\). What is the primary consequence of this appraisal for the structure of the loan and the buyer’s financial obligation, assuming the sale proceeds without price negotiation?
Correct
The lender’s calculation for the loan-to-value ratio (LTV) is based on the lesser of two figures: the property’s appraised value or the agreed-upon sales price. In this scenario, the sales price is \(\$520,000\) and the appraised value is \(\$500,000\). Therefore, the lender will use the lower figure, \(\$500,000\), as the basis for the loan calculation. The maximum loan amount is determined by the LTV percentage, which is \(80\%\). Maximum Loan Amount = Appraised Value × LTV Maximum Loan Amount = \(\$500,000 \times 0.80 = \$400,000\) The buyer is contractually obligated to pay the full sales price of \(\$520,000\). To determine the total cash the buyer must bring to closing, we subtract the maximum loan amount from the sales price. Total Cash from Buyer = Sales Price – Maximum Loan Amount Total Cash from Buyer = \(\$520,000 – \$400,000 = \$120,000\) This total cash requirement of \(\$120,000\) can be broken down into two components. First is the standard down payment required to achieve an \(80\%\) LTV on the appraised value, which is \(20\%\) of \(\$500,000\), or \(\$100,000\). The second component is the difference between the sales price and the appraised value, often called the appraisal gap or shortfall. This gap is \(\$520,000 – \$500,000 = \$20,000\). The buyer must cover this shortfall with their own funds because the lender will not finance it. Thus, the loan is based on the appraised value, and the buyer’s out-of-pocket expense increases to cover the portion of the sales price that exceeds the appraisal.
Incorrect
The lender’s calculation for the loan-to-value ratio (LTV) is based on the lesser of two figures: the property’s appraised value or the agreed-upon sales price. In this scenario, the sales price is \(\$520,000\) and the appraised value is \(\$500,000\). Therefore, the lender will use the lower figure, \(\$500,000\), as the basis for the loan calculation. The maximum loan amount is determined by the LTV percentage, which is \(80\%\). Maximum Loan Amount = Appraised Value × LTV Maximum Loan Amount = \(\$500,000 \times 0.80 = \$400,000\) The buyer is contractually obligated to pay the full sales price of \(\$520,000\). To determine the total cash the buyer must bring to closing, we subtract the maximum loan amount from the sales price. Total Cash from Buyer = Sales Price – Maximum Loan Amount Total Cash from Buyer = \(\$520,000 – \$400,000 = \$120,000\) This total cash requirement of \(\$120,000\) can be broken down into two components. First is the standard down payment required to achieve an \(80\%\) LTV on the appraised value, which is \(20\%\) of \(\$500,000\), or \(\$100,000\). The second component is the difference between the sales price and the appraised value, often called the appraisal gap or shortfall. This gap is \(\$520,000 – \$500,000 = \$20,000\). The buyer must cover this shortfall with their own funds because the lender will not finance it. Thus, the loan is based on the appraised value, and the buyer’s out-of-pocket expense increases to cover the portion of the sales price that exceeds the appraisal.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Consider a scenario involving a small, independent real estate firm in Oregon. Alistair was the sole principal broker for “Willamette Valley Homes.” Priya, a broker licensed under Alistair, secured a six-month exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement with a seller, Mr. Chen. Two months into the listing period, Alistair unexpectedly passes away. Priya, wanting to ensure a smooth process for her client, wishes to continue all marketing activities for Mr. Chen’s property without interruption. What is the immediate legal status of the listing agreement between Mr. Chen and Willamette Valley Homes following Alistair’s death?
Correct
The legal status of the listing agreement is determined by applying the principles of agency termination by operation of law. 1. Identify the parties to the agency agreement. The listing agreement creates an agency relationship between the client (Mr. Chen) and the principal broker (Alistair), who represents the brokerage entity. The associated broker (Priya) acts as a subagent, deriving her authority from her principal broker. 2. Identify the terminating event. The death of the principal broker, Alistair. 3. Apply the relevant legal principle. In agency law, the death of either the principal or the agent automatically terminates the agency relationship by operation of law. In this context, the “agent” is the principal broker with whom the listing agreement is legally established. 4. Determine the consequence. Since Alistair, the sole principal broker, has died, the agency agreement is immediately and automatically terminated. It is not suspended, transferable, or merely voidable; it ceases to exist. Priya’s authority to market the property was granted by Alistair, and with his death, her legal authority to act on behalf of Mr. Chen under that specific agreement is extinguished. For Priya to continue representing Mr. Chen, a new listing agreement would need to be executed between Mr. Chen and a new, legally licensed principal broker. In Oregon, a real estate broker’s license is associated with a specific principal real estate broker. The listing agreement is a contract between the seller and the principal broker’s company. The associated broker is an agent of the principal broker. Therefore, when a sole principal broker dies, the legal entity that holds the listing agreements effectively ceases to be able to perform its contractual duties. This event triggers termination by operation of law, a concept distinct from termination by acts of the parties, such as revocation or mutual consent. The termination is immediate and does not require any action from the seller or the Oregon Real Estate Agency. Any further action by the associated broker under the old agreement would be unauthorized. The surviving duties of an agent, such as confidentiality regarding the client’s information, would still apply to Priya, but her authority to perform other duties like marketing the property is void.
Incorrect
The legal status of the listing agreement is determined by applying the principles of agency termination by operation of law. 1. Identify the parties to the agency agreement. The listing agreement creates an agency relationship between the client (Mr. Chen) and the principal broker (Alistair), who represents the brokerage entity. The associated broker (Priya) acts as a subagent, deriving her authority from her principal broker. 2. Identify the terminating event. The death of the principal broker, Alistair. 3. Apply the relevant legal principle. In agency law, the death of either the principal or the agent automatically terminates the agency relationship by operation of law. In this context, the “agent” is the principal broker with whom the listing agreement is legally established. 4. Determine the consequence. Since Alistair, the sole principal broker, has died, the agency agreement is immediately and automatically terminated. It is not suspended, transferable, or merely voidable; it ceases to exist. Priya’s authority to market the property was granted by Alistair, and with his death, her legal authority to act on behalf of Mr. Chen under that specific agreement is extinguished. For Priya to continue representing Mr. Chen, a new listing agreement would need to be executed between Mr. Chen and a new, legally licensed principal broker. In Oregon, a real estate broker’s license is associated with a specific principal real estate broker. The listing agreement is a contract between the seller and the principal broker’s company. The associated broker is an agent of the principal broker. Therefore, when a sole principal broker dies, the legal entity that holds the listing agreements effectively ceases to be able to perform its contractual duties. This event triggers termination by operation of law, a concept distinct from termination by acts of the parties, such as revocation or mutual consent. The termination is immediate and does not require any action from the seller or the Oregon Real Estate Agency. Any further action by the associated broker under the old agreement would be unauthorized. The surviving duties of an agent, such as confidentiality regarding the client’s information, would still apply to Priya, but her authority to perform other duties like marketing the property is void.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Consider a scenario involving a property in Eugene, Oregon. Linnea grants a life estate to her brother, Stefan, with the remainder interest designated to her granddaughter, Isabella. The property includes a main house and a detached, historically significant workshop. Stefan, finding the workshop outdated for his needs, drafts plans to demolish it and construct a modern greenhouse in its place, arguing the change will increase the property’s overall market value. From the perspective of Oregon property law, which statement most accurately assesses the legal standing of Stefan’s plan?
Correct
The proposed action by the life tenant constitutes an act of voluntary waste. A life estate grants the holder, known as the life tenant, the right to possess, use, and derive income from a property for the duration of a specific person’s life. However, this right is not absolute and is limited by the doctrine of waste, which protects the interests of the future owner, the remainderman. The life tenant has a legal duty to deliver the property to the remainderman in substantially the same condition as it was received, allowing for normal depreciation. Waste is categorized into three types. Voluntary waste involves an affirmative, destructive act by the life tenant that diminishes the value or character of the property, such as demolishing a functional building. Permissive waste results from inaction or neglect, like failing to make necessary repairs. Ameliorative waste involves alterations that may increase the property’s market value but fundamentally change its character, which can still be impermissible if it violates the remainderman’s right to receive the property as intended. In this scenario, demolishing a historic structure is a clear example of voluntary waste. Even if the proposed new structure could potentially increase the property’s monetary value, the destruction of a significant, existing feature is a violation of the life tenant’s duty. The remainderman has the right to receive the entire property, including the barn, not a modified version of it, regardless of the financial outcome. The remainderman can seek legal remedies, such as an injunction, to prevent the commission of waste before the destruction occurs.
Incorrect
The proposed action by the life tenant constitutes an act of voluntary waste. A life estate grants the holder, known as the life tenant, the right to possess, use, and derive income from a property for the duration of a specific person’s life. However, this right is not absolute and is limited by the doctrine of waste, which protects the interests of the future owner, the remainderman. The life tenant has a legal duty to deliver the property to the remainderman in substantially the same condition as it was received, allowing for normal depreciation. Waste is categorized into three types. Voluntary waste involves an affirmative, destructive act by the life tenant that diminishes the value or character of the property, such as demolishing a functional building. Permissive waste results from inaction or neglect, like failing to make necessary repairs. Ameliorative waste involves alterations that may increase the property’s market value but fundamentally change its character, which can still be impermissible if it violates the remainderman’s right to receive the property as intended. In this scenario, demolishing a historic structure is a clear example of voluntary waste. Even if the proposed new structure could potentially increase the property’s monetary value, the destruction of a significant, existing feature is a violation of the life tenant’s duty. The remainderman has the right to receive the entire property, including the barn, not a modified version of it, regardless of the financial outcome. The remainderman can seek legal remedies, such as an injunction, to prevent the commission of waste before the destruction occurs.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Assessment of a situation involving a licensed Oregon real estate broker, Lin, reveals a potential fair housing conflict. Lin manages a property for an owner who has explicitly stated a preference for tenants with “traditional employment” and a strong aversion to renting to anyone receiving public assistance. Anya, a prospective tenant, submits an application indicating her income is a combination of federal disability benefits and a Section 8 Housing Choice Voucher. Given these circumstances, what is Lin’s required course of action under Oregon law?
Correct
The core of this issue rests on Oregon’s specific fair housing laws under ORS 659A.421, which expand upon federal protections. In Oregon, it is illegal to discriminate in housing based on race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, national origin, marital status, familial status, disability, or source of income. The critical element in this scenario is the “source of income” protection. This means a landlord or their agent cannot refuse to rent to, or otherwise discriminate against, a prospective tenant because their income derives from a lawful source other than employment, such as Social Security, disability benefits, or housing assistance programs like Section 8 vouchers. The property owner’s instruction to favor tenants with employment income and avoid those on public assistance is an explicitly discriminatory and unlawful instruction. As a licensed real estate broker, Lin has an overriding legal and ethical duty to comply with all fair housing laws. This duty supersedes the agent’s duty to obey the client’s instructions when those instructions are illegal. Therefore, Lin must disregard the owner’s discriminatory preference. She is legally obligated to evaluate Anya’s application based on the total amount of her lawful income, regardless of its source, to determine if she meets the established financial qualifications for the property. To do otherwise, such as rejecting the application or attempting to discourage the applicant based on the income source, would constitute a direct violation of Oregon fair housing law, subjecting both the owner and Lin to significant legal penalties and disciplinary action from the Oregon Real Estate Agency.
Incorrect
The core of this issue rests on Oregon’s specific fair housing laws under ORS 659A.421, which expand upon federal protections. In Oregon, it is illegal to discriminate in housing based on race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, national origin, marital status, familial status, disability, or source of income. The critical element in this scenario is the “source of income” protection. This means a landlord or their agent cannot refuse to rent to, or otherwise discriminate against, a prospective tenant because their income derives from a lawful source other than employment, such as Social Security, disability benefits, or housing assistance programs like Section 8 vouchers. The property owner’s instruction to favor tenants with employment income and avoid those on public assistance is an explicitly discriminatory and unlawful instruction. As a licensed real estate broker, Lin has an overriding legal and ethical duty to comply with all fair housing laws. This duty supersedes the agent’s duty to obey the client’s instructions when those instructions are illegal. Therefore, Lin must disregard the owner’s discriminatory preference. She is legally obligated to evaluate Anya’s application based on the total amount of her lawful income, regardless of its source, to determine if she meets the established financial qualifications for the property. To do otherwise, such as rejecting the application or attempting to discourage the applicant based on the income source, would constitute a direct violation of Oregon fair housing law, subjecting both the owner and Lin to significant legal penalties and disciplinary action from the Oregon Real Estate Agency.