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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider a scenario where Priya, an Oregon real estate broker, posts a general advertisement on her professional social media page highlighting her competitive commission rates. Marcus, a homeowner whose property is currently under an exclusive right-to-sell agreement with another broker, Kenji, sees the post. Dissatisfied with Kenji’s marketing efforts, Marcus contacts Priya directly, explains his situation, and asks if she would be willing to take over the listing. According to the NAR Code of Ethics, what is Priya’s most appropriate course of action?
Correct
The ethical obligations in this scenario are governed by Article 16 of the National Association of REALTORS® Code of Ethics. This article mandates that REALTORS® shall not engage in practices or take actions inconsistent with the exclusive representation agreements other REALTORS® have with clients. The key to navigating this situation lies in understanding the distinction between prohibited solicitation and permissible discussion. Standard of Practice 16-2 clarifies that general advertising, such as a social media post, is not a violation. The violation occurs, or is avoided, based on the REALTOR’s actions after being contacted by a property owner who is already in an exclusive agreement. When Marcus, the property owner, initiates contact, Priya is not required to terminate the conversation. However, her actions must be carefully managed. According to Standard of Practice 16-4, she is permitted to discuss the terms upon which she might take a future listing. This discussion is contingent on the fact that it would only become effective after the expiration of the current exclusive agreement. Therefore, her first professional step is to inquire about the nature and expiration date of Marcus’s current listing with Kenji. She can then explain her services and commission structure for a potential future engagement but must refrain from giving Marcus advice on how to terminate his current contract or making any disparaging remarks about Kenji’s services. This approach respects the existing contractual relationship while allowing for future business discussions initiated by the client.
Incorrect
The ethical obligations in this scenario are governed by Article 16 of the National Association of REALTORS® Code of Ethics. This article mandates that REALTORS® shall not engage in practices or take actions inconsistent with the exclusive representation agreements other REALTORS® have with clients. The key to navigating this situation lies in understanding the distinction between prohibited solicitation and permissible discussion. Standard of Practice 16-2 clarifies that general advertising, such as a social media post, is not a violation. The violation occurs, or is avoided, based on the REALTOR’s actions after being contacted by a property owner who is already in an exclusive agreement. When Marcus, the property owner, initiates contact, Priya is not required to terminate the conversation. However, her actions must be carefully managed. According to Standard of Practice 16-4, she is permitted to discuss the terms upon which she might take a future listing. This discussion is contingent on the fact that it would only become effective after the expiration of the current exclusive agreement. Therefore, her first professional step is to inquire about the nature and expiration date of Marcus’s current listing with Kenji. She can then explain her services and commission structure for a potential future engagement but must refrain from giving Marcus advice on how to terminate his current contract or making any disparaging remarks about Kenji’s services. This approach respects the existing contractual relationship while allowing for future business discussions initiated by the client.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
An assessment of a property transaction involves a parcel of land in Tillamook County, Oregon, that borders the Pacific Ocean. The prospective buyer, Mateo, plans to construct a permanent, elevated deck and a private boat ramp extending from the edge of the upland vegetation across the dry sand beach into the water. Mateo’s real estate broker advises him about his rights. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the legal realities Mateo faces regarding his construction plans under Oregon law?
Correct
The legal conclusion is derived by applying Oregon’s specific laws regarding littoral rights and the Public Trust Doctrine. 1. Identify the type of water body: The property abuts the Pacific Ocean, a navigable, non-flowing body of water. This means littoral rights are the governing principle, not riparian rights. 2. Determine the property boundary: In Oregon, for lands abutting navigable tidal waters, private ownership extends to the statutory line of vegetation or the mean high water line, whichever is more shoreward. The land seaward of this boundary, known as the foreshore (the area between the mean high and mean low water lines), is state-owned. 3. Apply the Public Trust Doctrine: Oregon law holds that the state owns the submerged and submersible lands of navigable waters in trust for the public. This includes the foreshore. The public has the right to use these lands for recreation, access, and navigation. 4. Evaluate the proposed action: The property owner wants to build a permanent, exclusive structure on the foreshore. Since the foreshore is state-owned public trust land, the owner has no inherent right to build a private structure there. 5. Consider regulatory oversight: Any construction on the foreshore, even for erosion control, would require a permit from the Oregon Department of State Lands (DSL) and potentially the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. A private, exclusive-use structure that impedes public access is fundamentally at odds with the Public Trust Doctrine and is extremely unlikely to be permitted. Therefore, the owner’s claim of ownership to the low tide line is incorrect, and the proposed construction would constitute an unpermitted encroachment on public land. In Oregon, the distinction between private property rights and public trust lands is a critical concept for real estate professionals. Littoral rights grant the upland owner access to the water, but not the right to exclusively occupy or build on the state-owned foreshore. This area is reserved for public use, a principle vigorously upheld by state law and the courts. Any structure, such as a seawall or revetment, even if intended for erosion control, is subject to a rigorous permitting process through the Department of State Lands. The process evaluates the public need, environmental impact, and effect on public access. Granting a permit for a purely private recreational structure like a cabana on public trust land would be inconsistent with the state’s fiduciary duty to the public. Understanding this boundary and the overriding public interest is essential when advising clients on coastal properties.
Incorrect
The legal conclusion is derived by applying Oregon’s specific laws regarding littoral rights and the Public Trust Doctrine. 1. Identify the type of water body: The property abuts the Pacific Ocean, a navigable, non-flowing body of water. This means littoral rights are the governing principle, not riparian rights. 2. Determine the property boundary: In Oregon, for lands abutting navigable tidal waters, private ownership extends to the statutory line of vegetation or the mean high water line, whichever is more shoreward. The land seaward of this boundary, known as the foreshore (the area between the mean high and mean low water lines), is state-owned. 3. Apply the Public Trust Doctrine: Oregon law holds that the state owns the submerged and submersible lands of navigable waters in trust for the public. This includes the foreshore. The public has the right to use these lands for recreation, access, and navigation. 4. Evaluate the proposed action: The property owner wants to build a permanent, exclusive structure on the foreshore. Since the foreshore is state-owned public trust land, the owner has no inherent right to build a private structure there. 5. Consider regulatory oversight: Any construction on the foreshore, even for erosion control, would require a permit from the Oregon Department of State Lands (DSL) and potentially the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. A private, exclusive-use structure that impedes public access is fundamentally at odds with the Public Trust Doctrine and is extremely unlikely to be permitted. Therefore, the owner’s claim of ownership to the low tide line is incorrect, and the proposed construction would constitute an unpermitted encroachment on public land. In Oregon, the distinction between private property rights and public trust lands is a critical concept for real estate professionals. Littoral rights grant the upland owner access to the water, but not the right to exclusively occupy or build on the state-owned foreshore. This area is reserved for public use, a principle vigorously upheld by state law and the courts. Any structure, such as a seawall or revetment, even if intended for erosion control, is subject to a rigorous permitting process through the Department of State Lands. The process evaluates the public need, environmental impact, and effect on public access. Granting a permit for a purely private recreational structure like a cabana on public trust land would be inconsistent with the state’s fiduciary duty to the public. Understanding this boundary and the overriding public interest is essential when advising clients on coastal properties.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Kenji, an Oregon principal broker, represents seller Aiko in listing her parcel of land zoned for mixed-use development. Aiko confidentially informs Kenji that while her list price is firm, she would accept a slightly lower offer to expedite the sale due to a personal matter. Subsequently, a development firm, also represented by Kenji, expresses strong interest. The firm’s representative confidentially tells Kenji that they are prepared to offer significantly more than the list price because the parcel is critical for their new project’s access road. Assuming Kenji has properly established a disclosed limited agency relationship with both parties, what is the legally mandated course of action for Kenji regarding this confidential information?
Correct
Logical Deduction: Step 1: Identify the agency relationship established in the scenario. The broker, Kenji, is representing both the seller (Aiko) and the buyer (a development firm) in the same transaction. This constitutes a disclosed limited agency relationship under Oregon law, assuming all required disclosures have been made and consents obtained. Step 2: Define the fiduciary duties within a disclosed limited agency as per Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) 696.815. In this specific relationship, the traditional duties of undivided loyalty and full disclosure are modified. Step 3: Analyze the core conflict. Kenji possesses confidential information from the seller (the minimum acceptable price) and the buyer (the maximum payable price and intended use). The duty of confidentiality is paramount in this situation. Step 4: Apply ORS 696.815(3), which explicitly prohibits a disclosed limited agent from disclosing, without written permission from the respective party, that the seller will accept a price or terms other than those contained in the listing agreement, or that the buyer will pay a price or terms other than those contained in the offer. Step 5: Determine the broker’s primary obligation. Kenji’s duty of loyalty is now to both parties, which means he cannot advance one party’s financial interests over the other’s. His primary legal and ethical obligation is to maintain the confidentiality of the pricing and motivation information he has received from both clients. He must act as a neutral facilitator, encouraging negotiation between the parties without revealing the confidential information that would give one an advantage over the other. A real estate broker operating as a disclosed limited agent in Oregon has a unique set of fiduciary responsibilities that differ significantly from those in a single-agency relationship. Under Oregon law, this type of agent represents both the seller and the buyer in the same transaction. While the duties of accountability and reasonable care remain intact, the duties of loyalty and disclosure are fundamentally altered. The agent cannot provide undivided loyalty to either party, as their interests are inherently opposed, particularly concerning price. Consequently, the agent must not advocate for one client to the detriment of the other. The most critical modification involves confidentiality. The agent is statutorily prohibited from disclosing sensitive information, such as the lowest price a seller will accept or the highest price a buyer will pay, without the express written consent of the party who provided that information. The agent’s role transforms from that of a dedicated advocate to a neutral facilitator whose main purpose is to bring the parties together to a mutually agreeable conclusion while strictly protecting the confidential information of both. This neutrality is the cornerstone of a lawful and ethical disclosed limited agency practice.
Incorrect
Logical Deduction: Step 1: Identify the agency relationship established in the scenario. The broker, Kenji, is representing both the seller (Aiko) and the buyer (a development firm) in the same transaction. This constitutes a disclosed limited agency relationship under Oregon law, assuming all required disclosures have been made and consents obtained. Step 2: Define the fiduciary duties within a disclosed limited agency as per Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) 696.815. In this specific relationship, the traditional duties of undivided loyalty and full disclosure are modified. Step 3: Analyze the core conflict. Kenji possesses confidential information from the seller (the minimum acceptable price) and the buyer (the maximum payable price and intended use). The duty of confidentiality is paramount in this situation. Step 4: Apply ORS 696.815(3), which explicitly prohibits a disclosed limited agent from disclosing, without written permission from the respective party, that the seller will accept a price or terms other than those contained in the listing agreement, or that the buyer will pay a price or terms other than those contained in the offer. Step 5: Determine the broker’s primary obligation. Kenji’s duty of loyalty is now to both parties, which means he cannot advance one party’s financial interests over the other’s. His primary legal and ethical obligation is to maintain the confidentiality of the pricing and motivation information he has received from both clients. He must act as a neutral facilitator, encouraging negotiation between the parties without revealing the confidential information that would give one an advantage over the other. A real estate broker operating as a disclosed limited agent in Oregon has a unique set of fiduciary responsibilities that differ significantly from those in a single-agency relationship. Under Oregon law, this type of agent represents both the seller and the buyer in the same transaction. While the duties of accountability and reasonable care remain intact, the duties of loyalty and disclosure are fundamentally altered. The agent cannot provide undivided loyalty to either party, as their interests are inherently opposed, particularly concerning price. Consequently, the agent must not advocate for one client to the detriment of the other. The most critical modification involves confidentiality. The agent is statutorily prohibited from disclosing sensitive information, such as the lowest price a seller will accept or the highest price a buyer will pay, without the express written consent of the party who provided that information. The agent’s role transforms from that of a dedicated advocate to a neutral facilitator whose main purpose is to bring the parties together to a mutually agreeable conclusion while strictly protecting the confidential information of both. This neutrality is the cornerstone of a lawful and ethical disclosed limited agency practice.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider a scenario in Oregon where Kenji, a real estate broker, represents the seller, Lin. Lin informs Kenji that her property has an old underground heating oil tank that was filled with an inert material 20 years ago but never received a formal decommissioning certificate from the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ). On the Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement, Lin checks the “Unknown” box for the question regarding underground storage tanks. Kenji, despite having this knowledge, proceeds with the transaction. The buyer’s inspection does not uncover the tank. After closing, the buyer discovers the uncertified tank. What is the most accurate assessment of Kenji’s legal position?
Correct
The core legal principle at issue is the real estate licensee’s affirmative duty to disclose known material facts. In this scenario, the broker, Kenji, possessed actual knowledge of a material fact: the existence of an underground oil tank that was not officially certified as decommissioned by the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ). A material fact is any information that could influence a reasonable person’s decision to buy the property or affect the price they would be willing to pay. An uncertified, decommissioned tank represents a significant potential liability and expense, thus qualifying as a material fact. Under Oregon Revised Statutes, specifically ORS 696.805 and 696.810, a licensee owes a duty of honesty, good faith, and disclosure of material adverse facts to all parties in a transaction. This duty is independent and not absolved by the seller’s actions. The seller, Lin, misrepresented the condition by marking “Unknown” on the Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement. However, Kenji’s knowledge of the truth and his failure to correct the misrepresentation or independently disclose the fact to the buyer constitutes a breach of his statutory duty. The buyer’s home inspector failing to find the buried tank does not relieve the broker of the duty to disclose what was already known. The broker’s duty is to disclose known facts, not just those that are easily discoverable. Therefore, Kenji’s primary legal exposure arises directly from his own inaction and failure to uphold his duty of disclosure.
Incorrect
The core legal principle at issue is the real estate licensee’s affirmative duty to disclose known material facts. In this scenario, the broker, Kenji, possessed actual knowledge of a material fact: the existence of an underground oil tank that was not officially certified as decommissioned by the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ). A material fact is any information that could influence a reasonable person’s decision to buy the property or affect the price they would be willing to pay. An uncertified, decommissioned tank represents a significant potential liability and expense, thus qualifying as a material fact. Under Oregon Revised Statutes, specifically ORS 696.805 and 696.810, a licensee owes a duty of honesty, good faith, and disclosure of material adverse facts to all parties in a transaction. This duty is independent and not absolved by the seller’s actions. The seller, Lin, misrepresented the condition by marking “Unknown” on the Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement. However, Kenji’s knowledge of the truth and his failure to correct the misrepresentation or independently disclose the fact to the buyer constitutes a breach of his statutory duty. The buyer’s home inspector failing to find the buried tank does not relieve the broker of the duty to disclose what was already known. The broker’s duty is to disclose known facts, not just those that are easily discoverable. Therefore, Kenji’s primary legal exposure arises directly from his own inaction and failure to uphold his duty of disclosure.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Amara, a principal broker in Eugene, Oregon, is conducting a routine audit of closed transaction files. She discovers that one of her associated brokers, Leo, failed to ensure the buyer received the Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement for a property that closed two months prior. The following day, Amara receives a letter from the buyer’s attorney alleging non-disclosure of a significant structural defect and indicating their intent to sue. From a risk management standpoint under Oregon real estate regulations and standard industry practice, what is Amara’s most critical and immediate responsibility?
Correct
The primary risk management responsibility of a principal broker in Oregon upon learning of a situation that could lead to litigation is to preserve the protections afforded by their mandatory Errors and Omissions insurance policy. E&O policies universally require prompt notification to the carrier of any act, error, or omission that might reasonably be expected to become the basis of a claim. Failure to provide timely notice can be grounds for the insurer to deny coverage, leaving the brokerage and the licensee personally exposed to the full financial and legal consequences of the lawsuit. This notification is a contractual obligation that supersedes other internal or external actions. While conducting an internal review, disciplining the associated broker, and compiling all relevant transaction documents are important subsequent steps, they are secondary to the immediate need to engage the insurance provider. The insurer will typically appoint legal counsel and direct the entire defense strategy, including any communication with the aggrieved party or settlement negotiations. Attempting to resolve the matter directly with the claimant or altering transaction records after a potential claim has been identified can severely prejudice the defense and may violate the terms of the insurance policy, creating even greater liability for the brokerage. The principal broker’s vicarious liability for the actions of their licensees makes this initial step of notifying the insurer the most critical action to mitigate the firm’s overall risk.
Incorrect
The primary risk management responsibility of a principal broker in Oregon upon learning of a situation that could lead to litigation is to preserve the protections afforded by their mandatory Errors and Omissions insurance policy. E&O policies universally require prompt notification to the carrier of any act, error, or omission that might reasonably be expected to become the basis of a claim. Failure to provide timely notice can be grounds for the insurer to deny coverage, leaving the brokerage and the licensee personally exposed to the full financial and legal consequences of the lawsuit. This notification is a contractual obligation that supersedes other internal or external actions. While conducting an internal review, disciplining the associated broker, and compiling all relevant transaction documents are important subsequent steps, they are secondary to the immediate need to engage the insurance provider. The insurer will typically appoint legal counsel and direct the entire defense strategy, including any communication with the aggrieved party or settlement negotiations. Attempting to resolve the matter directly with the claimant or altering transaction records after a potential claim has been identified can severely prejudice the defense and may violate the terms of the insurance policy, creating even greater liability for the brokerage. The principal broker’s vicarious liability for the actions of their licensees makes this initial step of notifying the insurer the most critical action to mitigate the firm’s overall risk.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Kenji, a loan portfolio manager at a mid-sized Oregon credit union, is tasked with assembling loan packages for sale on the secondary market to increase the institution’s liquidity. His primary goal is to secure a Ginnie Mae guarantee for one of the packages to attract conservative investors looking for the lowest-risk mortgage-backed securities. Which of the following loan packages created by Kenji would be eligible for this Ginnie Mae guarantee?
Correct
The core of this problem lies in differentiating the specific roles of the major entities in the secondary mortgage market. The Government National Mortgage Association (Ginnie Mae or GNMA) has a distinct function compared to the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae or FNMA) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac or FHLMC). Ginnie Mae is a wholly-owned government corporation within the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD). Its primary role is not to buy or sell mortgages but to guarantee the timely payment of principal and interest on mortgage-backed securities (MBS) that are backed by federally insured or guaranteed loans. These include loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), loans guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), and loans from the Rural Housing Service (RHS). By guaranteeing these securities, Ginnie Mae makes them more attractive to investors, thereby increasing the supply of credit for government-backed mortgages. In contrast, Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac are government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs) that purchase mortgages, including conventional loans, from lenders, package them into securities, and sell them to investors. They have specific loan limits and underwriting criteria for the conventional loans they purchase, known as conforming loans. Therefore, for a loan portfolio manager seeking a Ginnie Mae guarantee, the only suitable package would be one composed entirely of government-backed loans like FHA and VA loans. A package of high-quality conventional loans or adjustable-rate mortgages would be destined for Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac, while a package of jumbo loans would be considered non-conforming and sold on the private secondary market.
Incorrect
The core of this problem lies in differentiating the specific roles of the major entities in the secondary mortgage market. The Government National Mortgage Association (Ginnie Mae or GNMA) has a distinct function compared to the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae or FNMA) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac or FHLMC). Ginnie Mae is a wholly-owned government corporation within the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD). Its primary role is not to buy or sell mortgages but to guarantee the timely payment of principal and interest on mortgage-backed securities (MBS) that are backed by federally insured or guaranteed loans. These include loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), loans guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), and loans from the Rural Housing Service (RHS). By guaranteeing these securities, Ginnie Mae makes them more attractive to investors, thereby increasing the supply of credit for government-backed mortgages. In contrast, Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac are government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs) that purchase mortgages, including conventional loans, from lenders, package them into securities, and sell them to investors. They have specific loan limits and underwriting criteria for the conventional loans they purchase, known as conforming loans. Therefore, for a loan portfolio manager seeking a Ginnie Mae guarantee, the only suitable package would be one composed entirely of government-backed loans like FHA and VA loans. A package of high-quality conventional loans or adjustable-rate mortgages would be destined for Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac, while a package of jumbo loans would be considered non-conforming and sold on the private secondary market.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
An assessment of a property manager’s screening policy for a large apartment complex in Portland reveals a specific requirement: all applicants must demonstrate a monthly income of three times the rent, verifiable exclusively through pay stubs from a single employer. An applicant, Amara, is denied housing. Her total income, derived from part-time employment, lawful child support payments, and a state-issued housing assistance voucher, exceeds the required threshold. The denial was based solely on her inability to meet the “single employer pay stub” rule. Which of the following correctly evaluates the property manager’s action under Oregon law?
Correct
Under Oregon law, specifically ORS Chapter 659A, it is unlawful for a landlord or property manager to discriminate against a prospective tenant based on their source of income. The definition of “source of income” is broad and includes not only wages from employment but also public assistance, housing assistance payments like Section 8 vouchers, disability benefits, social security, and any other lawful source of funds. In this scenario, the property manager has instituted a policy that, while appearing neutral on its face, has a discriminatory effect. The requirement that income be verifiable through pay stubs from a single employer disproportionately harms individuals who rely on multiple sources of income, including those protected by law such as disability benefits and housing assistance. This is known as disparate impact discrimination. The policy effectively screens out qualified applicants like the one described, not because they cannot afford the rent, but because the structure of their lawful income does not fit the landlord’s narrow, arbitrary criteria. The legality is not determined by the uniform application of the policy, but by its discriminatory outcome. Therefore, rejecting an applicant who meets the total income requirement through a combination of lawful sources constitutes a violation of Oregon’s Fair Housing Act.
Incorrect
Under Oregon law, specifically ORS Chapter 659A, it is unlawful for a landlord or property manager to discriminate against a prospective tenant based on their source of income. The definition of “source of income” is broad and includes not only wages from employment but also public assistance, housing assistance payments like Section 8 vouchers, disability benefits, social security, and any other lawful source of funds. In this scenario, the property manager has instituted a policy that, while appearing neutral on its face, has a discriminatory effect. The requirement that income be verifiable through pay stubs from a single employer disproportionately harms individuals who rely on multiple sources of income, including those protected by law such as disability benefits and housing assistance. This is known as disparate impact discrimination. The policy effectively screens out qualified applicants like the one described, not because they cannot afford the rent, but because the structure of their lawful income does not fit the landlord’s narrow, arbitrary criteria. The legality is not determined by the uniform application of the policy, but by its discriminatory outcome. Therefore, rejecting an applicant who meets the total income requirement through a combination of lawful sources constitutes a violation of Oregon’s Fair Housing Act.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider a scenario where Mateo inherited a parcel of undeveloped land in Deschutes County, Oregon, from his uncle five years ago. He is now selling this land to his sister, Elena. Mateo has maintained the property diligently and is confident that no new liens, easements, or other encumbrances have been placed on the property during his five years of ownership. However, he has no knowledge of the property’s title history prior to his inheritance and wants to legally limit his liability to only the period he held the title. Which type of deed would most precisely accomplish Mateo’s specific objective under Oregon law?
Correct
This question does not require a mathematical calculation. In Oregon, the type of deed used to convey real property determines the level of protection and the specific promises, or covenants, the grantor (seller) makes to the grantee (buyer). Understanding the distinctions is crucial. A General Warranty Deed, as defined under ORS 93.850, offers the highest level of protection. The grantor warrants the title against all defects and encumbrances, regardless of when they arose, even before the grantor owned the property. A Quitclaim Deed, under ORS 93.865, provides the least protection. It conveys whatever interest the grantor may have, if any, without any warranties or covenants about the title’s quality. It essentially says, “I am giving you whatever I have, but I’m not promising I have anything.” A Bargain and Sale Deed, per ORS 93.860, implies that the grantor holds the title and possession of the property but does not provide express warranties against encumbrances. It is a middle ground, offering more assurance than a quitclaim but less than a warranty deed. The Special Warranty Deed, outlined in ORS 93.855, is a specific instrument where the grantor warrants the title only against claims and encumbrances that arose during their period of ownership. The grantor does not protect the grantee against title defects that existed before they acquired the property. This is a common choice for fiduciaries, corporations, or individuals who have limited knowledge of the property’s history prior to their ownership and wish to limit their future liability to their own actions or inactions.
Incorrect
This question does not require a mathematical calculation. In Oregon, the type of deed used to convey real property determines the level of protection and the specific promises, or covenants, the grantor (seller) makes to the grantee (buyer). Understanding the distinctions is crucial. A General Warranty Deed, as defined under ORS 93.850, offers the highest level of protection. The grantor warrants the title against all defects and encumbrances, regardless of when they arose, even before the grantor owned the property. A Quitclaim Deed, under ORS 93.865, provides the least protection. It conveys whatever interest the grantor may have, if any, without any warranties or covenants about the title’s quality. It essentially says, “I am giving you whatever I have, but I’m not promising I have anything.” A Bargain and Sale Deed, per ORS 93.860, implies that the grantor holds the title and possession of the property but does not provide express warranties against encumbrances. It is a middle ground, offering more assurance than a quitclaim but less than a warranty deed. The Special Warranty Deed, outlined in ORS 93.855, is a specific instrument where the grantor warrants the title only against claims and encumbrances that arose during their period of ownership. The grantor does not protect the grantee against title defects that existed before they acquired the property. This is a common choice for fiduciaries, corporations, or individuals who have limited knowledge of the property’s history prior to their ownership and wish to limit their future liability to their own actions or inactions.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider a scenario in Eastern Oregon where a rancher, Mateo, holds a certificated senior water right with a 1920 priority date for the irrigation of a 200-acre parcel. Due to economic reasons and a shift in his agricultural strategy, Mateo only irrigates 120 acres of the parcel for six consecutive years. A downstream neighbor with a junior water right from 1975 is consistently unable to draw their full water allotment. Upon discovering Mateo’s reduced usage, what is the legal status of Mateo’s water right?
Correct
In Oregon, water rights are governed by the Doctrine of Prior Appropriation, which is often summarized as “first in time, first in right.” This means the first person to obtain a water right on a stream has the right to use their full allotment of water before any later, or junior, right holders can use theirs. However, a water right is not an absolute ownership of the water itself but a right to use it for a beneficial purpose. This beneficial use is the basis, measure, and limit of the water right. A critical component of this doctrine in Oregon is the principle of forfeiture, codified in state law. If a water right holder fails to use all or part of their water right for a period of five or more consecutive years, that unused portion of the right is subject to forfeiture. This is often called the “use it or lose it” principle. In the given scenario, the property owner failed to irrigate 60 of the 100 acres for six consecutive years. This period of non-use exceeds the five-year statutory limit. Consequently, the portion of the water right appurtenant to those 60 acres is presumed forfeited. A junior water right holder or the Oregon Water Resources Department can initiate a legal process to have that portion of the senior right officially cancelled, which would then make that water available for other users in order of priority. The senior status of the right does not provide immunity from the forfeiture requirement for non-use.
Incorrect
In Oregon, water rights are governed by the Doctrine of Prior Appropriation, which is often summarized as “first in time, first in right.” This means the first person to obtain a water right on a stream has the right to use their full allotment of water before any later, or junior, right holders can use theirs. However, a water right is not an absolute ownership of the water itself but a right to use it for a beneficial purpose. This beneficial use is the basis, measure, and limit of the water right. A critical component of this doctrine in Oregon is the principle of forfeiture, codified in state law. If a water right holder fails to use all or part of their water right for a period of five or more consecutive years, that unused portion of the right is subject to forfeiture. This is often called the “use it or lose it” principle. In the given scenario, the property owner failed to irrigate 60 of the 100 acres for six consecutive years. This period of non-use exceeds the five-year statutory limit. Consequently, the portion of the water right appurtenant to those 60 acres is presumed forfeited. A junior water right holder or the Oregon Water Resources Department can initiate a legal process to have that portion of the senior right officially cancelled, which would then make that water available for other users in order of priority. The senior status of the right does not provide immunity from the forfeiture requirement for non-use.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider a scenario where three friends, Lin, Mateo, and Chloe, purchase an investment property in Portland, Oregon. The deed explicitly states they are taking title as tenants in common, with Lin holding a 50% interest, Mateo a 30% interest, and Chloe a 20% interest. Tragically, Mateo dies a few years later, leaving a valid will that bequeaths all of his real property to his nephew, Javier. What is the status of the property’s ownership following Mateo’s death?
Correct
The outcome is determined by the legal principles of tenancy in common, not a mathematical calculation. In Oregon, tenancy in common is a form of concurrent ownership where two or more persons hold title to a property, each with an undivided interest. A defining characteristic of this ownership form is that the interests can be unequal. For instance, one co-tenant might own a sixty percent interest, while two others own twenty percent each. Despite these differing ownership percentages, each tenant in common has the right to possess and use the entire property. The most critical distinction of tenancy in common from other forms of co-ownership, such as joint tenancy, is the absence of the right of survivorship. This means that when a tenant in common dies, their interest in the property does not automatically pass to the surviving co-tenants. Instead, the deceased co-tenant’s share is an asset of their estate. It is freely devisable and inheritable. Consequently, the interest passes to the beneficiaries named in the deceased’s will or, if they die intestate (without a will), to their legal heirs as determined by Oregon’s laws of intestate succession. The surviving tenants in common simply continue as co-owners alongside the new owner or owners of the deceased’s share.
Incorrect
The outcome is determined by the legal principles of tenancy in common, not a mathematical calculation. In Oregon, tenancy in common is a form of concurrent ownership where two or more persons hold title to a property, each with an undivided interest. A defining characteristic of this ownership form is that the interests can be unequal. For instance, one co-tenant might own a sixty percent interest, while two others own twenty percent each. Despite these differing ownership percentages, each tenant in common has the right to possess and use the entire property. The most critical distinction of tenancy in common from other forms of co-ownership, such as joint tenancy, is the absence of the right of survivorship. This means that when a tenant in common dies, their interest in the property does not automatically pass to the surviving co-tenants. Instead, the deceased co-tenant’s share is an asset of their estate. It is freely devisable and inheritable. Consequently, the interest passes to the beneficiaries named in the deceased’s will or, if they die intestate (without a will), to their legal heirs as determined by Oregon’s laws of intestate succession. The surviving tenants in common simply continue as co-owners alongside the new owner or owners of the deceased’s share.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Kenji owns a residential duplex in Eugene, Oregon, which is financed with a trust deed he secured several years ago at a very low interest rate. He enters into a sales agreement with a buyer, Amara, who is an investor. A key condition of Amara’s offer is her ability to assume Kenji’s existing low-interest loan. Kenji’s real estate broker reviews the original trust deed documents to advise him on the feasibility of this condition. The presence of which of the following clauses would most directly empower the lender to prevent this loan assumption and demand the full loan balance be paid upon the transfer of title?
Correct
No calculation is required for this question. The central concept tested is the function of specific clauses within a mortgage instrument, particularly in the context of a property sale where the buyer wishes to assume the seller’s existing loan. The alienation clause, also commonly known as the due-on-sale clause, is a provision in a mortgage or trust deed that gives the lender the right to demand full payment of the outstanding loan balance upon the sale or transfer of the property securing the loan. The primary purpose of this clause is to protect the lender’s interests. It prevents a new, potentially less creditworthy buyer from assuming the loan. Furthermore, it allows the lender to adjust the interest rate to current market levels when the property changes hands, which is especially significant in a rising interest rate environment. If this clause exists in the loan documents, the seller cannot transfer the property to a new buyer subject to the existing loan without the lender’s consent, which typically involves the new buyer qualifying for a new loan or the lender agreeing to the assumption, often at a new, higher interest rate. This clause is distinct from other common mortgage provisions. An acceleration clause is triggered by the borrower’s default, such as failing to make payments, not by the sale of the property. A defeasance clause dictates that the lender must release the lien on the property once the loan is paid in full, effectively clearing the title. A prepayment penalty clause imposes a fee on the borrower for paying off the loan ahead of schedule, which could be a consequence of a sale, but it does not in itself prohibit the assumption of the loan. In Oregon, while there are statutory limits on prepayment penalties for certain residential loans, alienation clauses are generally standard and enforceable.
Incorrect
No calculation is required for this question. The central concept tested is the function of specific clauses within a mortgage instrument, particularly in the context of a property sale where the buyer wishes to assume the seller’s existing loan. The alienation clause, also commonly known as the due-on-sale clause, is a provision in a mortgage or trust deed that gives the lender the right to demand full payment of the outstanding loan balance upon the sale or transfer of the property securing the loan. The primary purpose of this clause is to protect the lender’s interests. It prevents a new, potentially less creditworthy buyer from assuming the loan. Furthermore, it allows the lender to adjust the interest rate to current market levels when the property changes hands, which is especially significant in a rising interest rate environment. If this clause exists in the loan documents, the seller cannot transfer the property to a new buyer subject to the existing loan without the lender’s consent, which typically involves the new buyer qualifying for a new loan or the lender agreeing to the assumption, often at a new, higher interest rate. This clause is distinct from other common mortgage provisions. An acceleration clause is triggered by the borrower’s default, such as failing to make payments, not by the sale of the property. A defeasance clause dictates that the lender must release the lien on the property once the loan is paid in full, effectively clearing the title. A prepayment penalty clause imposes a fee on the borrower for paying off the loan ahead of schedule, which could be a consequence of a sale, but it does not in itself prohibit the assumption of the loan. In Oregon, while there are statutory limits on prepayment penalties for certain residential loans, alienation clauses are generally standard and enforceable.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A financial institution in Portland holds a trust deed on a single-family home that served as the primary residence for the borrower, Anika. After Anika defaults on her loan payments, the institution, acting as the beneficiary, instructs the trustee to initiate a non-judicial foreclosure. The trustee properly follows all statutory notice requirements under Oregon law, and the property is sold at a trustee’s sale. The sale price, however, is $40,000 less than the total outstanding loan balance. Assessment of the situation reveals the institution’s next step is to recover the shortfall. Which of the following accurately describes the institution’s legal position regarding the $40,000 shortfall?
Correct
Under Oregon law, when a lender forecloses on a residential trust deed using the non-judicial power of sale process, they are generally prohibited from obtaining a deficiency judgment against the borrower. A deficiency judgment is a personal judgment against a borrower for the remaining balance of the loan after the foreclosure sale proceeds have been applied to the debt, but are insufficient to cover the full amount. The specific statute, ORS 86.797(2), explicitly states that no deficiency judgment shall be allowed on a note secured by a trust deed for property that was used as the borrower’s primary residence at the time the trust deed was executed. This protection is a significant feature of Oregon’s non-judicial foreclosure system for residential properties. The rationale is to provide a trade-off: the lender gets a faster, less expensive foreclosure process (non-judicial), and in return, the borrower is protected from further personal liability for the debt. This contrasts with a judicial foreclosure, which is a more lengthy and costly court process for the lender, but which may allow the lender to pursue a deficiency judgment under certain circumstances. The prohibition is automatic for qualifying residential trust deeds foreclosed non-judicially and does not depend on specific clauses in the loan documents or post-sale court actions.
Incorrect
Under Oregon law, when a lender forecloses on a residential trust deed using the non-judicial power of sale process, they are generally prohibited from obtaining a deficiency judgment against the borrower. A deficiency judgment is a personal judgment against a borrower for the remaining balance of the loan after the foreclosure sale proceeds have been applied to the debt, but are insufficient to cover the full amount. The specific statute, ORS 86.797(2), explicitly states that no deficiency judgment shall be allowed on a note secured by a trust deed for property that was used as the borrower’s primary residence at the time the trust deed was executed. This protection is a significant feature of Oregon’s non-judicial foreclosure system for residential properties. The rationale is to provide a trade-off: the lender gets a faster, less expensive foreclosure process (non-judicial), and in return, the borrower is protected from further personal liability for the debt. This contrasts with a judicial foreclosure, which is a more lengthy and costly court process for the lender, but which may allow the lender to pursue a deficiency judgment under certain circumstances. The prohibition is automatic for qualifying residential trust deeds foreclosed non-judicially and does not depend on specific clauses in the loan documents or post-sale court actions.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
An assessment of a broker’s conduct in Oregon reveals a consistent pattern. When working with clients who have young children, Broker Kenji proactively curates property showings. He exclusively presents homes in neighborhoods renowned for their high-performing public schools and extensive park systems. He avoids showing them properties that meet their financial and size criteria if those properties are located in areas he perceives as being more suited for “young professionals” or “retirees,” even if the clients have not expressed any such limitations. What is the most accurate legal evaluation of Broker Kenji’s professional practice under Oregon fair housing laws?
Correct
The broker’s actions constitute illegal steering based on familial status. The core of the violation is not the broker’s intent, but the effect of their actions. Oregon law, under ORS Chapter 659A, along with the federal Fair Housing Act, prohibits discrimination based on protected classes, which includes familial status (the presence of children under 18). Steering occurs when a real estate licensee influences a client’s choice of location or housing based on their protected class. In this scenario, the broker, despite believing he is acting in his clients’ best interest, is making assumptions about their needs and desires based on the fact that they have children. By proactively filtering and directing them only to areas he personally deems “family-friendly” and away from others, he is limiting their housing opportunities and making choices for them. The proper and legal practice is to provide clients with all available listings that meet their objective criteria, such as price, size, and location preferences, and then provide them with objective resources (e.g., school district websites, municipal park information) to allow them to make their own determination about a neighborhood’s suitability. The broker’s role is to facilitate, not to direct based on protected characteristics. The act of channeling homebuyers to or away from particular neighborhoods based on their familial status is a clear violation of fair housing laws, regardless of whether the motive was benevolent or malicious.
Incorrect
The broker’s actions constitute illegal steering based on familial status. The core of the violation is not the broker’s intent, but the effect of their actions. Oregon law, under ORS Chapter 659A, along with the federal Fair Housing Act, prohibits discrimination based on protected classes, which includes familial status (the presence of children under 18). Steering occurs when a real estate licensee influences a client’s choice of location or housing based on their protected class. In this scenario, the broker, despite believing he is acting in his clients’ best interest, is making assumptions about their needs and desires based on the fact that they have children. By proactively filtering and directing them only to areas he personally deems “family-friendly” and away from others, he is limiting their housing opportunities and making choices for them. The proper and legal practice is to provide clients with all available listings that meet their objective criteria, such as price, size, and location preferences, and then provide them with objective resources (e.g., school district websites, municipal park information) to allow them to make their own determination about a neighborhood’s suitability. The broker’s role is to facilitate, not to direct based on protected characteristics. The act of channeling homebuyers to or away from particular neighborhoods based on their familial status is a clear violation of fair housing laws, regardless of whether the motive was benevolent or malicious.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Anika, an Oregon principal broker, is tasked with preparing a CMA for a unique, architect-designed home in Bend’s Old Mill District. There are no recent sales of properties with a similar architectural style or specific energy-efficient features in the immediate vicinity. Several standard tract homes have sold nearby, and a vacant lot suitable for new construction is also on the market. In applying the Principle of Substitution to establish a credible value range, what is the most critical consideration for Anika?
Correct
The valuation of the subject property is determined by the Principle of Substitution. This principle is applied through a logical process. First, we acknowledge that a rational buyer will not pay more for a property than the cost of acquiring a substitute property of similar utility and desirability. In this scenario, two types of substitutes exist: an existing property or a newly constructed one. The cost of the first substitute is the price of another available property that a buyer would find equally appealing, even if it requires adjustments for differences. The cost of the second substitute is the combined cost of purchasing a comparable vacant lot and the cost to construct a new home with the same features and utility as the subject property. The Principle of Substitution dictates that the upper limit of the subject property’s value is capped by the lower of these two costs. Therefore, the final determination of value is not based on adding features’ costs to dissimilar homes or averaging local sales, but on what it would cost a buyer to create or acquire a functionally equivalent alternative. The Principle of Substitution is a foundational economic concept in real estate appraisal and is the basis for the Sales Comparison Approach, a primary method used by Oregon brokers when creating a Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) or a Broker Price Opinion (BPO). The principle asserts that the value of a property is set by the cost of acquiring an equally desirable substitute property without undue delay. When perfect comparables are not available, as is common with unique properties, a broker must think like a buyer and consider all viable alternatives. This includes not just other existing homes that might be in different locations or have different features requiring adjustment, but also the possibility of new construction. The market value is therefore constrained by the cost of the most affordable, equally desirable alternative, ensuring the valuation reflects the real choices available to consumers in the marketplace. This prevents a property’s unique features from being overvalued beyond what a buyer would be willing to pay to obtain those features through other means.
Incorrect
The valuation of the subject property is determined by the Principle of Substitution. This principle is applied through a logical process. First, we acknowledge that a rational buyer will not pay more for a property than the cost of acquiring a substitute property of similar utility and desirability. In this scenario, two types of substitutes exist: an existing property or a newly constructed one. The cost of the first substitute is the price of another available property that a buyer would find equally appealing, even if it requires adjustments for differences. The cost of the second substitute is the combined cost of purchasing a comparable vacant lot and the cost to construct a new home with the same features and utility as the subject property. The Principle of Substitution dictates that the upper limit of the subject property’s value is capped by the lower of these two costs. Therefore, the final determination of value is not based on adding features’ costs to dissimilar homes or averaging local sales, but on what it would cost a buyer to create or acquire a functionally equivalent alternative. The Principle of Substitution is a foundational economic concept in real estate appraisal and is the basis for the Sales Comparison Approach, a primary method used by Oregon brokers when creating a Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) or a Broker Price Opinion (BPO). The principle asserts that the value of a property is set by the cost of acquiring an equally desirable substitute property without undue delay. When perfect comparables are not available, as is common with unique properties, a broker must think like a buyer and consider all viable alternatives. This includes not just other existing homes that might be in different locations or have different features requiring adjustment, but also the possibility of new construction. The market value is therefore constrained by the cost of the most affordable, equally desirable alternative, ensuring the valuation reflects the real choices available to consumers in the marketplace. This prevents a property’s unique features from being overvalued beyond what a buyer would be willing to pay to obtain those features through other means.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A major technology firm announces the construction of a new campus in Bend, Oregon, projected to create 3,000 high-wage jobs over the next two years. Concurrently, the city’s proposal to expand its Urban Growth Boundary (UGB) is stalled in regulatory review, preventing new large-scale housing developments from breaking ground. What is the most likely immediate consequence for Bend’s housing market based on these two events?
Correct
This problem does not require a mathematical calculation. The solution is derived by applying core economic principles of supply and demand to a specific Oregon real estate scenario. The fundamental concept at play is the relationship between the supply of housing and the demand for it. In any market, when demand for a product increases while its supply remains constant or decreases, the price of that product will rise. Conversely, if supply increases while demand remains constant, the price will fall. In this scenario, two critical events are occurring simultaneously. First, there is a significant, sudden increase in demand. The creation of thousands of new, high-wage jobs means a large number of people with substantial purchasing power will be entering the local housing market, seeking to buy homes. This is a classic demand shock. Second, the supply of new housing is artificially constrained. The inability to expand the Urban Growth Boundary (UGB) effectively halts the development of new large-scale housing tracts that could absorb this new demand. While some infill development might occur, it is a much slower process and cannot match the scale and immediacy of the demand increase. Therefore, a large pool of new buyers will be competing for the relatively fixed number of existing homes for sale. This intense competition for a scarce resource inevitably and immediately drives up prices as buyers are forced to bid against each other. The most direct and primary consequence is a rapid appreciation of the value of the existing housing stock.
Incorrect
This problem does not require a mathematical calculation. The solution is derived by applying core economic principles of supply and demand to a specific Oregon real estate scenario. The fundamental concept at play is the relationship between the supply of housing and the demand for it. In any market, when demand for a product increases while its supply remains constant or decreases, the price of that product will rise. Conversely, if supply increases while demand remains constant, the price will fall. In this scenario, two critical events are occurring simultaneously. First, there is a significant, sudden increase in demand. The creation of thousands of new, high-wage jobs means a large number of people with substantial purchasing power will be entering the local housing market, seeking to buy homes. This is a classic demand shock. Second, the supply of new housing is artificially constrained. The inability to expand the Urban Growth Boundary (UGB) effectively halts the development of new large-scale housing tracts that could absorb this new demand. While some infill development might occur, it is a much slower process and cannot match the scale and immediacy of the demand increase. Therefore, a large pool of new buyers will be competing for the relatively fixed number of existing homes for sale. This intense competition for a scarce resource inevitably and immediately drives up prices as buyers are forced to bid against each other. The most direct and primary consequence is a rapid appreciation of the value of the existing housing stock.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider a scenario where Amara, a prospective tenant in Eugene, Oregon, is denied a rental unit. She has excellent credit and references, but relies on a federal Section 8 Housing Choice Voucher to supplement her rent. The property manager, licensed under a principal broker, stated that the owner has a policy of not participating in “government programs.” An assessment of Amara’s situation under the Oregon Fair Housing Act (ORS Chapter 659A) would indicate which of the following as the most accurate description of her enforcement options?
Correct
The logical determination of the correct enforcement path involves a three-step analysis based on Oregon law. First, the protected class must be identified. In this scenario, the denial is potentially based on the applicant’s use of a Section 8 housing voucher, which constitutes “source of income.” Under Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 659A.421, source of income is a protected class, making discrimination on this basis unlawful. Second, the primary state agency responsible for investigating such housing discrimination claims in Oregon must be identified. This agency is the Oregon Bureau of Labor and Industries (BOLI), specifically its Civil Rights Division. BOLI is empowered to receive, investigate, and mediate complaints related to violations of ORS Chapter 659A. Third, the statute of limitations for filing a complaint with this specific agency must be known. Under Oregon law, a person who believes they have been subjected to unlawful housing discrimination has one year from the date of the alleged discriminatory act to file a formal complaint with BOLI. Therefore, the correct course of action combines these three elements: filing a complaint based on source of income discrimination with BOLI within the one-year timeframe. It is also important to understand that while a complaint can also be filed with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), typically within one year, filing with BOLI is the direct state-level administrative remedy. The two agencies have a work-sharing agreement, but the path through BOLI is a distinct and primary option for enforcing Oregon’s specific fair housing protections.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the correct enforcement path involves a three-step analysis based on Oregon law. First, the protected class must be identified. In this scenario, the denial is potentially based on the applicant’s use of a Section 8 housing voucher, which constitutes “source of income.” Under Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 659A.421, source of income is a protected class, making discrimination on this basis unlawful. Second, the primary state agency responsible for investigating such housing discrimination claims in Oregon must be identified. This agency is the Oregon Bureau of Labor and Industries (BOLI), specifically its Civil Rights Division. BOLI is empowered to receive, investigate, and mediate complaints related to violations of ORS Chapter 659A. Third, the statute of limitations for filing a complaint with this specific agency must be known. Under Oregon law, a person who believes they have been subjected to unlawful housing discrimination has one year from the date of the alleged discriminatory act to file a formal complaint with BOLI. Therefore, the correct course of action combines these three elements: filing a complaint based on source of income discrimination with BOLI within the one-year timeframe. It is also important to understand that while a complaint can also be filed with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), typically within one year, filing with BOLI is the direct state-level administrative remedy. The two agencies have a work-sharing agreement, but the path through BOLI is a distinct and primary option for enforcing Oregon’s specific fair housing protections.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Anika entered into a valid six-month exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement with Kenji, a principal broker, for her property in Eugene, Oregon. Three months into the agreement, a kitchen fire caused significant damage, making the home temporarily unshowable. While the property was far from destroyed and could be fully repaired, Anika informed Kenji in writing that she was taking the property off the market indefinitely and was terminating their agreement due to the circumstances. Considering Oregon agency law, what is the status of the agency relationship between Anika and Kenji immediately following Anika’s written notice?
Correct
The logical determination of the agency status proceeds as follows: 1. Identify the core event: The principal (Anika) has communicated her intent to unilaterally end the agency relationship with her broker (Kenji) before the expiration of the listing agreement. This act is known as revocation. 2. Analyze the cause of revocation: The revocation is prompted by damage to the property, but the property is not completely destroyed. Oregon law recognizes that destruction of the subject matter terminates agency by operation of law. However, damage that only impairs marketability or requires repairs does not typically rise to the level of “destruction,” which would make the contract’s purpose impossible to fulfill. The house can still be sold once repaired. 3. Distinguish between the power to terminate and the right to terminate: A principal almost always has the power to revoke an agent’s authority at any time. However, if this revocation violates the terms of a binding contract (like an exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement with a specified term), the principal may not have the right to do so without penalty. 4. Evaluate the consequences: By revoking Kenji’s authority, Anika has effectively terminated the agency relationship in the sense that Kenji can no longer act on her behalf. However, this unilateral act, being contrary to the listing agreement’s term, constitutes a potential breach of contract. Therefore, while the agency itself is terminated, the contractual obligations may survive. This means Kenji could potentially sue for damages or be entitled to a commission as specified in the agreement’s penalty or protection clauses. The agency is terminated by the act of the principal, not automatically by law, and this termination may have financial consequences for the principal. In Oregon, an agency relationship is a consensual agreement between a principal and an agent. It can be terminated in several ways, including by the acts of the parties or by operation of law. Termination by operation of law happens automatically upon certain events, such as the death or incapacity of either party, or the destruction of the property that is the subject of the agency. This makes the performance of the agency impossible. In contrast, termination by the acts of the parties includes mutual agreement, renunciation by the agent, or revocation by the principal. A principal generally retains the power to revoke the agent’s authority at any time. However, this power does not equate to a right to do so without liability if a contract, such as a listing agreement for a specific term, is in place. Unilaterally revoking the agency before the contract expires can be a breach of that contract. In such a case, while the agent’s authority to represent the principal is terminated, the principal may still be liable for damages or the agent’s commission, depending on the specific terms outlined in the listing agreement. The damage to the property in this scenario complicates the situation but does not automatically trigger termination by operation of law unless it rendered the property completely unsellable, which is not the case.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the agency status proceeds as follows: 1. Identify the core event: The principal (Anika) has communicated her intent to unilaterally end the agency relationship with her broker (Kenji) before the expiration of the listing agreement. This act is known as revocation. 2. Analyze the cause of revocation: The revocation is prompted by damage to the property, but the property is not completely destroyed. Oregon law recognizes that destruction of the subject matter terminates agency by operation of law. However, damage that only impairs marketability or requires repairs does not typically rise to the level of “destruction,” which would make the contract’s purpose impossible to fulfill. The house can still be sold once repaired. 3. Distinguish between the power to terminate and the right to terminate: A principal almost always has the power to revoke an agent’s authority at any time. However, if this revocation violates the terms of a binding contract (like an exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement with a specified term), the principal may not have the right to do so without penalty. 4. Evaluate the consequences: By revoking Kenji’s authority, Anika has effectively terminated the agency relationship in the sense that Kenji can no longer act on her behalf. However, this unilateral act, being contrary to the listing agreement’s term, constitutes a potential breach of contract. Therefore, while the agency itself is terminated, the contractual obligations may survive. This means Kenji could potentially sue for damages or be entitled to a commission as specified in the agreement’s penalty or protection clauses. The agency is terminated by the act of the principal, not automatically by law, and this termination may have financial consequences for the principal. In Oregon, an agency relationship is a consensual agreement between a principal and an agent. It can be terminated in several ways, including by the acts of the parties or by operation of law. Termination by operation of law happens automatically upon certain events, such as the death or incapacity of either party, or the destruction of the property that is the subject of the agency. This makes the performance of the agency impossible. In contrast, termination by the acts of the parties includes mutual agreement, renunciation by the agent, or revocation by the principal. A principal generally retains the power to revoke the agent’s authority at any time. However, this power does not equate to a right to do so without liability if a contract, such as a listing agreement for a specific term, is in place. Unilaterally revoking the agency before the contract expires can be a breach of that contract. In such a case, while the agent’s authority to represent the principal is terminated, the principal may still be liable for damages or the agent’s commission, depending on the specific terms outlined in the listing agreement. The damage to the property in this scenario complicates the situation but does not automatically trigger termination by operation of law unless it rendered the property completely unsellable, which is not the case.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
The following case demonstrates a potential conflict of interest within a real estate brokerage in Portland, Oregon. Kenji is the principal broker of Cascade Realty. Chloe, a broker associated with Cascade Realty, has an exclusive seller agency agreement with Omar to sell his home. Ben, another broker associated with Cascade Realty, has a buyer representation agreement with Priya. Priya decides she wants to make an offer on Omar’s property. To ensure the transaction proceeds in full compliance with Oregon’s agency laws, what specific action must principal broker Kenji take?
Correct
Under Oregon law, when two real estate licensees associated with the same principal broker represent the seller and the buyer in the same transaction, a specific agency relationship called Disclosed Limited Agency is created. This situation requires careful handling to remain compliant. A single individual licensee is prohibited from acting as a dual agent representing both parties. However, the brokerage firm, through its principal broker, can. For this to be legal, the principal broker must act as the disclosed limited agent for both the seller and the buyer. The two associated licensees, one representing the seller and one representing the buyer, continue their representation but operate under the supervision of the principal broker who is now the dual agent. This arrangement is only permissible with the prior, informed, and written consent of both the buyer and the seller. This consent is formalized through a statutory form, the Disclosed Limited Agency Agreement, as mandated by Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS 696.815). In this capacity, the principal broker and the associated licensees have modified fiduciary duties. While they must still maintain confidentiality of each party’s information, the duties of undivided loyalty, full disclosure, and negotiating solely on behalf of one party are limited. The principal broker’s primary role becomes ensuring the transaction is managed fairly and that the two associated brokers do not breach their duties to their respective clients.
Incorrect
Under Oregon law, when two real estate licensees associated with the same principal broker represent the seller and the buyer in the same transaction, a specific agency relationship called Disclosed Limited Agency is created. This situation requires careful handling to remain compliant. A single individual licensee is prohibited from acting as a dual agent representing both parties. However, the brokerage firm, through its principal broker, can. For this to be legal, the principal broker must act as the disclosed limited agent for both the seller and the buyer. The two associated licensees, one representing the seller and one representing the buyer, continue their representation but operate under the supervision of the principal broker who is now the dual agent. This arrangement is only permissible with the prior, informed, and written consent of both the buyer and the seller. This consent is formalized through a statutory form, the Disclosed Limited Agency Agreement, as mandated by Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS 696.815). In this capacity, the principal broker and the associated licensees have modified fiduciary duties. While they must still maintain confidentiality of each party’s information, the duties of undivided loyalty, full disclosure, and negotiating solely on behalf of one party are limited. The principal broker’s primary role becomes ensuring the transaction is managed fairly and that the two associated brokers do not breach their duties to their respective clients.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
An assessment of Amara’s commercial real estate portfolio in Portland, Oregon, is being conducted by her broker, Kenji. The portfolio is comprised of several Class A office buildings with long-term leases to tenants with excellent credit, yielding a high and stable cash flow. Kenji’s analysis includes an economic forecast predicting a significant and sustained decline in prevailing interest rates over the next five years, which is when several of Amara’s most lucrative leases are set to expire. Amara’s primary concern is the potential impact on her future income stream once she has to find new tenants. Which financial risk does this specific forecast most accurately represent for Amara’s portfolio?
Correct
The scenario describes an investor, Amara, who holds properties with long-term leases that provide a stable, high return. The primary concern arises from the forecast of falling interest rates, which will coincide with the expiration of these leases. The core issue is the challenge of replacing the current high-yield income streams in a future economic environment where returns are expected to be lower. This specific challenge is defined as reinvestment risk. It is the risk that future cash flows, in this case, the income from new leases, will have to be secured at a lower rate of return than the current investment provides. The investor’s focus is on the future income-generating capacity of the portfolio after the existing, favorable leases end. This risk is distinct from other financial risks. Interest rate risk, for example, more commonly refers to the impact of rate changes on the current market value of an asset. In this case, falling interest rates would likely increase the present value of her properties, which is the opposite of a negative risk to valuation. Liquidity risk pertains to the ability to sell an asset quickly without a price penalty, which is not the central concern described. Business risk involves the operational performance of the property and tenants, such as a tenant defaulting, but the scenario emphasizes high-credit tenants and focuses on the external economic forecast rather than internal operational failures. Therefore, the most accurate classification of the risk presented by the forecast of falling rates on future lease renewals is reinvestment risk, as it directly addresses the potential for diminished returns when it is time to re-lease the spaces.
Incorrect
The scenario describes an investor, Amara, who holds properties with long-term leases that provide a stable, high return. The primary concern arises from the forecast of falling interest rates, which will coincide with the expiration of these leases. The core issue is the challenge of replacing the current high-yield income streams in a future economic environment where returns are expected to be lower. This specific challenge is defined as reinvestment risk. It is the risk that future cash flows, in this case, the income from new leases, will have to be secured at a lower rate of return than the current investment provides. The investor’s focus is on the future income-generating capacity of the portfolio after the existing, favorable leases end. This risk is distinct from other financial risks. Interest rate risk, for example, more commonly refers to the impact of rate changes on the current market value of an asset. In this case, falling interest rates would likely increase the present value of her properties, which is the opposite of a negative risk to valuation. Liquidity risk pertains to the ability to sell an asset quickly without a price penalty, which is not the central concern described. Business risk involves the operational performance of the property and tenants, such as a tenant defaulting, but the scenario emphasizes high-credit tenants and focuses on the external economic forecast rather than internal operational failures. Therefore, the most accurate classification of the risk presented by the forecast of falling rates on future lease renewals is reinvestment risk, as it directly addresses the potential for diminished returns when it is time to re-lease the spaces.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider a scenario where Akemi and Rohan, a legally married couple, purchased a residential property in Bend, Oregon. The recorded deed lists both their names as grantees but fails to specify the form of co-ownership. Years later, Rohan passes away. His valid will contains a clause leaving all his real property interests to his brother, Mateo. Based on Oregon law, what is the ownership status of the Bend property after Rohan’s death?
Correct
The legal analysis to determine the ownership outcome proceeds as follows: 1. Identify the legal status of the grantees: Akemi and Rohan were legally married at the time they acquired the real property in Oregon. 2. Examine the conveyance instrument: The deed identified both Akemi and Rohan as the grantees but did not specify the form of co-ownership. It did not use terms like “tenants in common,” “joint tenants with right of survivorship,” or “tenants by the entirety.” 3. Apply relevant Oregon statute: Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 93.180 governs how conveyances to two or more people are interpreted. A key provision of this statute is that a conveyance of real property to a married couple is presumed to create a tenancy by the entirety, unless the conveyance expressly declares a different form of tenancy. 4. Evaluate the presumption: Since the deed to Akemi and Rohan was silent on the form of tenancy, the statutory presumption applies. Therefore, they held the property as tenants by the entirety. 5. Determine the effect of tenancy by the entirety: A primary characteristic of tenancy by the entirety is the right of survivorship. This right is automatic and operates outside of probate. When one spouse dies, their interest in the property is extinguished, and the surviving spouse becomes the sole owner of the entire property in fee simple by operation of law. 6. Conclusion: Upon Rohan’s death, Akemi automatically became the sole owner of the property. Rohan’s interest ceased to exist and did not become part of his estate. Consequently, his will, which attempted to devise his interest to his brother, is ineffective with respect to this specific property. Tenancy by the entirety is a special form of co-ownership available only to married couples in Oregon. It is characterized by the “five unities” of time, title, interest, possession, and person (the legal fiction that a married couple is one person). The most significant feature is the automatic right of survivorship. This means that upon the death of one spouse, the surviving spouse automatically acquires the deceased spouse’s interest without the need for probate proceedings. This right is a powerful estate planning tool but also a strict legal construct. Under Oregon law, there is a strong legal presumption that any conveyance to a married couple creates this form of tenancy unless the deed explicitly states another form of ownership, such as tenancy in common. This presumption simplifies property transfers for surviving spouses but means that individual testamentary wishes, like a clause in a will, cannot sever the tenancy or redirect the property interest if it is held by the entirety. The property interest is not considered part of the decedent’s estate for distribution purposes.
Incorrect
The legal analysis to determine the ownership outcome proceeds as follows: 1. Identify the legal status of the grantees: Akemi and Rohan were legally married at the time they acquired the real property in Oregon. 2. Examine the conveyance instrument: The deed identified both Akemi and Rohan as the grantees but did not specify the form of co-ownership. It did not use terms like “tenants in common,” “joint tenants with right of survivorship,” or “tenants by the entirety.” 3. Apply relevant Oregon statute: Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 93.180 governs how conveyances to two or more people are interpreted. A key provision of this statute is that a conveyance of real property to a married couple is presumed to create a tenancy by the entirety, unless the conveyance expressly declares a different form of tenancy. 4. Evaluate the presumption: Since the deed to Akemi and Rohan was silent on the form of tenancy, the statutory presumption applies. Therefore, they held the property as tenants by the entirety. 5. Determine the effect of tenancy by the entirety: A primary characteristic of tenancy by the entirety is the right of survivorship. This right is automatic and operates outside of probate. When one spouse dies, their interest in the property is extinguished, and the surviving spouse becomes the sole owner of the entire property in fee simple by operation of law. 6. Conclusion: Upon Rohan’s death, Akemi automatically became the sole owner of the property. Rohan’s interest ceased to exist and did not become part of his estate. Consequently, his will, which attempted to devise his interest to his brother, is ineffective with respect to this specific property. Tenancy by the entirety is a special form of co-ownership available only to married couples in Oregon. It is characterized by the “five unities” of time, title, interest, possession, and person (the legal fiction that a married couple is one person). The most significant feature is the automatic right of survivorship. This means that upon the death of one spouse, the surviving spouse automatically acquires the deceased spouse’s interest without the need for probate proceedings. This right is a powerful estate planning tool but also a strict legal construct. Under Oregon law, there is a strong legal presumption that any conveyance to a married couple creates this form of tenancy unless the deed explicitly states another form of ownership, such as tenancy in common. This presumption simplifies property transfers for surviving spouses but means that individual testamentary wishes, like a clause in a will, cannot sever the tenancy or redirect the property interest if it is held by the entirety. The property interest is not considered part of the decedent’s estate for distribution purposes.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
An assessment of a landlord’s rental application policy in Portland, Oregon, reveals a strict prohibition against accepting tenants whose income is supplemented by any form of public housing assistance. The landlord, Liam, instructs his broker, Anya, to reject an applicant, Kenji, solely because a portion of Kenji’s verifiable and sufficient income is derived from the Oregon Rent Assistance Program. Liam argues this is a standard business practice to avoid administrative complexities. If Anya complies with Liam’s instruction and rejects Kenji’s application on this basis, what is the legal standing of her action under Oregon law?
Correct
The broker’s action of complying with the landlord’s instruction to reject the applicant is an unlawful discriminatory practice under Oregon law. Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) Chapter 659A, which governs fair housing, explicitly includes “source of income” as a protected class. This protection is broader than what is provided under the federal Fair Housing Act. The term “source of income” is defined to include any lawful, verifiable source of money paid to a person, which explicitly encompasses public assistance, housing choice vouchers (such as Section 8), and other forms of rent assistance. Therefore, a landlord or their agent cannot refuse to rent to a prospective tenant simply because they receive government aid to pay their rent. The landlord is permitted to have consistent and non-discriminatory income requirements, such as requiring all tenants to have a verifiable income of three times the rent. However, if the applicant’s income, including the housing assistance, meets this requirement, the landlord cannot reject them based on the origin of that income. A real estate broker has an independent duty to uphold fair housing laws. Following a client’s illegal instruction does not shield the broker from liability. The broker’s professional responsibility is to advise the client that their request is unlawful and to refuse to participate in any discriminatory act.
Incorrect
The broker’s action of complying with the landlord’s instruction to reject the applicant is an unlawful discriminatory practice under Oregon law. Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) Chapter 659A, which governs fair housing, explicitly includes “source of income” as a protected class. This protection is broader than what is provided under the federal Fair Housing Act. The term “source of income” is defined to include any lawful, verifiable source of money paid to a person, which explicitly encompasses public assistance, housing choice vouchers (such as Section 8), and other forms of rent assistance. Therefore, a landlord or their agent cannot refuse to rent to a prospective tenant simply because they receive government aid to pay their rent. The landlord is permitted to have consistent and non-discriminatory income requirements, such as requiring all tenants to have a verifiable income of three times the rent. However, if the applicant’s income, including the housing assistance, meets this requirement, the landlord cannot reject them based on the origin of that income. A real estate broker has an independent duty to uphold fair housing laws. Following a client’s illegal instruction does not shield the broker from liability. The broker’s professional responsibility is to advise the client that their request is unlawful and to refuse to participate in any discriminatory act.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
An appraiser is tasked with determining the value of a single-family residence built in the late 19th century, located within a designated historic district in Ashland, Oregon. The property is owner-occupied, has been impeccably preserved, and contains numerous irreplaceable, period-specific features. Market data reveals a scarcity of recent, truly comparable sales. If the appraiser chooses to heavily weigh the cost approach, which of the following factors presents the most significant and complex challenge to developing a credible opinion of value?
Correct
Not applicable. When appraising a property, especially a unique one like a historic building, the appraiser must select the most appropriate valuation method. The three primary methods are the sales comparison approach, the income approach, and the cost approach. For a unique, owner-occupied historic property with few comparable sales, the cost approach is often considered, but it presents significant challenges. The cost approach determines value by calculating the cost to build a similar structure, subtracting any accrued depreciation, and adding the value of the land. The central difficulty in this scenario lies with the structure itself. An appraiser must choose between estimating reproduction cost or replacement cost. Reproduction cost is the cost of creating an exact duplicate of the structure using the same materials and craftsmanship. For a historic home with hand-carved woodwork and original stained glass, determining this cost is exceptionally difficult and expensive. Replacement cost, the cost of building a structure with the same utility using modern materials, is easier to calculate but fails to capture the unique value of the historic elements. Furthermore, depreciation must be assessed. While physical deterioration might be minimal if the property is well-maintained, functional obsolescence is complex. Features that are historically significant might be functionally obsolete by modern standards, yet they contribute a premium value due to their historic nature. Accurately quantifying this interplay between obsolescence and historic value is the most significant challenge. Other factors like land value or external obsolescence are part of the process but are secondary to the primary problem of valuing the unique improvements.
Incorrect
Not applicable. When appraising a property, especially a unique one like a historic building, the appraiser must select the most appropriate valuation method. The three primary methods are the sales comparison approach, the income approach, and the cost approach. For a unique, owner-occupied historic property with few comparable sales, the cost approach is often considered, but it presents significant challenges. The cost approach determines value by calculating the cost to build a similar structure, subtracting any accrued depreciation, and adding the value of the land. The central difficulty in this scenario lies with the structure itself. An appraiser must choose between estimating reproduction cost or replacement cost. Reproduction cost is the cost of creating an exact duplicate of the structure using the same materials and craftsmanship. For a historic home with hand-carved woodwork and original stained glass, determining this cost is exceptionally difficult and expensive. Replacement cost, the cost of building a structure with the same utility using modern materials, is easier to calculate but fails to capture the unique value of the historic elements. Furthermore, depreciation must be assessed. While physical deterioration might be minimal if the property is well-maintained, functional obsolescence is complex. Features that are historically significant might be functionally obsolete by modern standards, yet they contribute a premium value due to their historic nature. Accurately quantifying this interplay between obsolescence and historic value is the most significant challenge. Other factors like land value or external obsolescence are part of the process but are secondary to the primary problem of valuing the unique improvements.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
An assessment of a commercial lease agreement between landlord Amara and tenant Kenji reveals a specific clause. This clause stipulates that if Amara receives a bona fide offer to purchase the property from a third party that she is willing to accept, Kenji must first be given the opportunity to purchase the property under the exact same terms and conditions. If Kenji declines, Amara is free to sell to the third party. How is this contractual right most accurately classified under Oregon law?
Correct
The scenario describes a Right of First Refusal, often abbreviated as ROFR. This is a contractual right that becomes active only when the property owner decides to sell and has received an acceptable, bona fide offer from a third party. The holder of the ROFR, in this case the tenant, does not have the power to force the owner to sell the property. Instead, their right is contingent upon the owner’s actions. Once the owner communicates their intent to accept a third-party offer, the ROFR holder is given the opportunity to step into the third party’s shoes and purchase the property under the identical terms and conditions. If the holder declines to exercise this right, the owner is then free to proceed with the sale to the original third-party offeror. This is fundamentally different from an option contract. An option contract grants the holder the unilateral and exclusive right to purchase a property at a predetermined price for a specified period, regardless of whether the owner is actively trying to sell or has received other offers. The option holder can compel the sale at their discretion, which is a power the holder of a ROFR does not possess. The clause in the lease is therefore a classic example of a Right of First Refusal.
Incorrect
The scenario describes a Right of First Refusal, often abbreviated as ROFR. This is a contractual right that becomes active only when the property owner decides to sell and has received an acceptable, bona fide offer from a third party. The holder of the ROFR, in this case the tenant, does not have the power to force the owner to sell the property. Instead, their right is contingent upon the owner’s actions. Once the owner communicates their intent to accept a third-party offer, the ROFR holder is given the opportunity to step into the third party’s shoes and purchase the property under the identical terms and conditions. If the holder declines to exercise this right, the owner is then free to proceed with the sale to the original third-party offeror. This is fundamentally different from an option contract. An option contract grants the holder the unilateral and exclusive right to purchase a property at a predetermined price for a specified period, regardless of whether the owner is actively trying to sell or has received other offers. The option holder can compel the sale at their discretion, which is a power the holder of a ROFR does not possess. The clause in the lease is therefore a classic example of a Right of First Refusal.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Assessment of a recent inheritance situation in Deschutes County reveals a complex title transfer challenge. Anya recently inherited a commercial parcel in Bend, Oregon, from a distant relative. She has no knowledge of the property’s history prior to her inheritance. She agrees to sell the parcel to Kai, an experienced developer. To protect herself from potential liability for unknown, pre-existing title defects, such as an old unrecorded utility easement from decades ago, while still providing a marketable and financeable title to Kai, which of the following deeds would be the most strategically appropriate for Anya to use under Oregon law?
Correct
The most suitable instrument for this transaction is a special warranty deed. This type of deed provides a crucial balance between the seller’s need to limit liability and the buyer’s need for assurance of title. Under a special warranty deed, as defined by Oregon statute, the grantor warrants the title only against defects, liens, or encumbrances that arose during their specific period of ownership. In this scenario, the seller has only owned the property for a short time via inheritance and has not taken any actions to cloud the title. Therefore, she can confidently warrant that she has not encumbered the property. This protects the buyer from any issues created by the seller herself. Conversely, using a general warranty deed would be imprudent for the seller. It would require her to defend the title against all claims from all time, including any unknown issues created by her distant relative or any prior owners. This would expose her to significant and unknown financial risk. A quitclaim deed, while offering the seller maximum protection by making no warranties whatsoever, would likely be unacceptable to a sophisticated commercial buyer. It conveys only the interest the grantor might have, if any, and is often a red flag regarding the quality of the title, potentially making it difficult for the buyer to secure title insurance or financing. A bargain and sale deed in Oregon implies the grantor holds title but does not provide express warranties against encumbrances, offering the buyer less protection than a special warranty deed. Therefore, the special warranty deed is the most commercially reasonable and legally strategic choice, protecting the seller from historical defects while assuring the buyer that the title is clean as of the seller’s involvement.
Incorrect
The most suitable instrument for this transaction is a special warranty deed. This type of deed provides a crucial balance between the seller’s need to limit liability and the buyer’s need for assurance of title. Under a special warranty deed, as defined by Oregon statute, the grantor warrants the title only against defects, liens, or encumbrances that arose during their specific period of ownership. In this scenario, the seller has only owned the property for a short time via inheritance and has not taken any actions to cloud the title. Therefore, she can confidently warrant that she has not encumbered the property. This protects the buyer from any issues created by the seller herself. Conversely, using a general warranty deed would be imprudent for the seller. It would require her to defend the title against all claims from all time, including any unknown issues created by her distant relative or any prior owners. This would expose her to significant and unknown financial risk. A quitclaim deed, while offering the seller maximum protection by making no warranties whatsoever, would likely be unacceptable to a sophisticated commercial buyer. It conveys only the interest the grantor might have, if any, and is often a red flag regarding the quality of the title, potentially making it difficult for the buyer to secure title insurance or financing. A bargain and sale deed in Oregon implies the grantor holds title but does not provide express warranties against encumbrances, offering the buyer less protection than a special warranty deed. Therefore, the special warranty deed is the most commercially reasonable and legally strategic choice, protecting the seller from historical defects while assuring the buyer that the title is clean as of the seller’s involvement.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Assessment of Kenji’s financing situation for a property in Bend, Oregon, reveals a loan amount of $486,000 against an appraised value of $540,000, which is lower than the agreed-upon sales price. From a lender’s risk management perspective, what is the most direct and certain consequence of this specific loan-to-value ratio for a conventional loan?
Correct
The calculation to determine the loan-to-value ratio is based on the loan amount and the property’s value. Lenders will always use the lesser of the sales price or the appraised value to determine the property’s value for lending purposes. In this scenario, the appraised value of $540,000 is less than the sales price. The loan amount is $486,000. The loan-to-value ratio is calculated as follows: \[ \frac{\text{Loan Amount}}{\text{Appraised Value}} = \frac{\$486,000}{\$540,000} = 0.90 \] This result, 0.90, is expressed as a percentage, which is 90%. The loan-to-value ratio, or LTV, is a critical financial metric used by lenders to assess the risk associated with a mortgage loan. It represents the proportion of the property’s value that is being financed through the loan. A higher LTV indicates that the borrower has a smaller down payment and therefore less personal equity invested in the property. From the lender’s perspective, a lower equity position increases the risk of financial loss if the borrower defaults on the loan and the property must be sold through foreclosure. The proceeds from the sale might not be sufficient to cover the outstanding loan balance. To mitigate this heightened risk, lenders typically implement protective measures. For conventional loans, a standard industry threshold is an LTV of 80%. When a borrower’s LTV exceeds 80%, meaning their down payment is less than 20% of the property’s value, the lender will almost certainly require the borrower to obtain and pay for Private Mortgage Insurance. This insurance policy protects the lender, not the borrower, against losses in the event of a default. The requirement for this insurance adds to the borrower’s monthly housing expenses and is a direct consequence of the high-risk profile indicated by a 90% LTV.
Incorrect
The calculation to determine the loan-to-value ratio is based on the loan amount and the property’s value. Lenders will always use the lesser of the sales price or the appraised value to determine the property’s value for lending purposes. In this scenario, the appraised value of $540,000 is less than the sales price. The loan amount is $486,000. The loan-to-value ratio is calculated as follows: \[ \frac{\text{Loan Amount}}{\text{Appraised Value}} = \frac{\$486,000}{\$540,000} = 0.90 \] This result, 0.90, is expressed as a percentage, which is 90%. The loan-to-value ratio, or LTV, is a critical financial metric used by lenders to assess the risk associated with a mortgage loan. It represents the proportion of the property’s value that is being financed through the loan. A higher LTV indicates that the borrower has a smaller down payment and therefore less personal equity invested in the property. From the lender’s perspective, a lower equity position increases the risk of financial loss if the borrower defaults on the loan and the property must be sold through foreclosure. The proceeds from the sale might not be sufficient to cover the outstanding loan balance. To mitigate this heightened risk, lenders typically implement protective measures. For conventional loans, a standard industry threshold is an LTV of 80%. When a borrower’s LTV exceeds 80%, meaning their down payment is less than 20% of the property’s value, the lender will almost certainly require the borrower to obtain and pay for Private Mortgage Insurance. This insurance policy protects the lender, not the borrower, against losses in the event of a default. The requirement for this insurance adds to the borrower’s monthly housing expenses and is a direct consequence of the high-risk profile indicated by a 90% LTV.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Kenji, an Oregon real estate broker, is tasked with preparing a Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) for a client’s property. The property consists of a modest, older single-family home situated on a large lot. A recent municipal zoning change has designated the entire block for high-density, mixed-use commercial development, rendering the home a legal non-conforming use. An assessment of the situation shows that the property’s value as a potential development site far exceeds its value as a single-family residence. To provide a competent and ethical price opinion under Oregon law, what is Kenji’s most appropriate course of action?
Correct
The calculation is not applicable as this is a conceptual question. The principle of highest and best use is a fundamental concept in property valuation. It refers to the most profitable, legally permissible, and physically possible use of a property. When a property’s current use does not align with its highest and best use, as in the case of a residential home on land rezoned for commercial purposes, its market value is primarily driven by the potential of that highest and best use. In Oregon, a real estate broker preparing a Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) under OAR 863-015-0190 must provide a competent opinion of price. To do so accurately in this situation, the broker must look beyond the current improvements (the house) and focus on the land’s value for development. This involves analyzing comparable sales of land with similar zoning and development potential, rather than comparable residential homes. Failing to consider the highest and best use would result in a significant undervaluation and a failure to meet the broker’s duty of reasonable care and diligence to the client. The CMA must still contain the mandatory disclosure stating it is not an appraisal and was not prepared in accordance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP). The broker’s analysis should clearly explain that the price opinion is based on the land’s development potential, reflecting its true position in the market.
Incorrect
The calculation is not applicable as this is a conceptual question. The principle of highest and best use is a fundamental concept in property valuation. It refers to the most profitable, legally permissible, and physically possible use of a property. When a property’s current use does not align with its highest and best use, as in the case of a residential home on land rezoned for commercial purposes, its market value is primarily driven by the potential of that highest and best use. In Oregon, a real estate broker preparing a Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) under OAR 863-015-0190 must provide a competent opinion of price. To do so accurately in this situation, the broker must look beyond the current improvements (the house) and focus on the land’s value for development. This involves analyzing comparable sales of land with similar zoning and development potential, rather than comparable residential homes. Failing to consider the highest and best use would result in a significant undervaluation and a failure to meet the broker’s duty of reasonable care and diligence to the client. The CMA must still contain the mandatory disclosure stating it is not an appraisal and was not prepared in accordance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP). The broker’s analysis should clearly explain that the price opinion is based on the land’s development potential, reflecting its true position in the market.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Assessment of a broker’s disclosure duties in Oregon requires a careful look at facts known to the broker but not to their client or the other party. Consider the following situation: Kenji is the seller’s agent for a commercial property. An unrepresented buyer, Lucia, submits an offer, telling Kenji she intends to operate a boutique bookstore and cafe, a use currently permitted by zoning. While attending a municipal meeting on an unrelated matter, Kenji overhears a city planner discussing a credible, internally-circulated proposal to rezone that specific block to light industrial within two years, which would prohibit Lucia’s intended use. This proposal is not yet on any public agenda and Kenji’s seller is unaware of it. Under Oregon law, what is Kenji’s primary responsibility regarding the potential rezoning information?
Correct
Under Oregon law, specifically ORS 696.810, a real estate broker owes duties to all parties in a transaction, not just their own client. These duties include dealing honestly and in good faith and, critically, disclosing in writing material facts known by the agent that are not apparent or readily ascertainable to a party. A material fact is defined as information that, if known, could have influenced a party’s decision to enter into the transaction or the terms of the transaction. This definition is broad and is not limited to physical defects of the property. It can include external factors that affect the property’s use, value, or desirability. In the given scenario, the potential rezoning is a quintessential material fact. Even though it is not yet a formal public proposal, the agent has credible knowledge from a source within the planning commission. This information directly impacts the buyer’s explicitly stated long-term intended use for the property. The agent’s duty to disclose this fact to the third-party buyer is a direct legal obligation and is independent of the seller’s knowledge or permission. Withholding this information would be a breach of the agent’s duty of honesty and fair dealing to the third party, as it would prevent them from making a fully informed decision.
Incorrect
Under Oregon law, specifically ORS 696.810, a real estate broker owes duties to all parties in a transaction, not just their own client. These duties include dealing honestly and in good faith and, critically, disclosing in writing material facts known by the agent that are not apparent or readily ascertainable to a party. A material fact is defined as information that, if known, could have influenced a party’s decision to enter into the transaction or the terms of the transaction. This definition is broad and is not limited to physical defects of the property. It can include external factors that affect the property’s use, value, or desirability. In the given scenario, the potential rezoning is a quintessential material fact. Even though it is not yet a formal public proposal, the agent has credible knowledge from a source within the planning commission. This information directly impacts the buyer’s explicitly stated long-term intended use for the property. The agent’s duty to disclose this fact to the third-party buyer is a direct legal obligation and is independent of the seller’s knowledge or permission. Withholding this information would be a breach of the agent’s duty of honesty and fair dealing to the third party, as it would prevent them from making a fully informed decision.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Assessment of a boundary dispute in a Portland suburb reveals that a detached garage, belonging to a property purchased three years ago by Mr. Chen, extends five feet onto the neighboring lot owned by Ms. Alvarez. A recent survey commissioned by Ms. Alvarez confirmed the encroachment, which has existed for a total of twelve years, originating with Mr. Chen’s predecessor in interest. Both Mr. Chen and the previous owner were unaware of the boundary line issue until the survey. Given these facts, what is the most probable resolution based on Oregon property law?
Correct
The legal analysis of this situation hinges on Oregon’s specific requirements for adverse possession, as codified in ORS 105.620. To successfully claim title to the encroached-upon land, the claimant must prove several elements, including that their possession was actual, open, notorious, exclusive, hostile, and continuous for a period of 10 years. A critical and distinguishing element in Oregon law is the additional requirement that the claimant must have had an “honest belief” that they were the actual owner of the property throughout the statutory period. In the given scenario, the shed has been encroaching for 12 years, which satisfies the time duration. However, the current owner, Liam, has only owned the property for 3 years. While he may have held an honest belief of ownership during his 3-year tenure, this falls short of the 10-year requirement. He cannot automatically benefit from the previous owner’s period of possession to satisfy the “honest belief” element for himself. The burden is on Liam, the one claiming adverse possession, to prove all statutory elements, including his own 10-year honest belief. Since he cannot, his claim for adverse possession would fail. Consequently, the encroachment remains a trespass, and the rightful owner, Mei, can legally compel its removal.
Incorrect
The legal analysis of this situation hinges on Oregon’s specific requirements for adverse possession, as codified in ORS 105.620. To successfully claim title to the encroached-upon land, the claimant must prove several elements, including that their possession was actual, open, notorious, exclusive, hostile, and continuous for a period of 10 years. A critical and distinguishing element in Oregon law is the additional requirement that the claimant must have had an “honest belief” that they were the actual owner of the property throughout the statutory period. In the given scenario, the shed has been encroaching for 12 years, which satisfies the time duration. However, the current owner, Liam, has only owned the property for 3 years. While he may have held an honest belief of ownership during his 3-year tenure, this falls short of the 10-year requirement. He cannot automatically benefit from the previous owner’s period of possession to satisfy the “honest belief” element for himself. The burden is on Liam, the one claiming adverse possession, to prove all statutory elements, including his own 10-year honest belief. Since he cannot, his claim for adverse possession would fail. Consequently, the encroachment remains a trespass, and the rightful owner, Mei, can legally compel its removal.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Assessment of a seller-provided pro-forma income statement for a multifamily property in Ashland, Oregon reveals several listed annual expenses. An investor client, Lin, is relying on her broker to accurately determine the property’s Net Operating Income (NOI) to use for valuation purposes. Which of the following items, if present on the seller’s statement, must the broker advise Lin to exclude from the calculation to arrive at the property’s true Net Operating Income?
Correct
The calculation to determine Net Operating Income (NOI) is based on the property’s operational revenue and expenses, independent of financing. The formula is: \[ \text{Net Operating Income (NOI)} = \text{Effective Gross Income (EGI)} – \text{Operating Expenses (OE)} \] Let’s assume a hypothetical property with an EGI of \(\$150,000\). The operating expenses include property taxes (\(\$12,000\)), insurance (\(\$5,000\)), and maintenance (\(\$8,000\)). The seller’s current annual mortgage payment (debt service) is \(\$60,000\). To correctly calculate NOI, we only subtract the operating expenses from the EGI: \[ \text{NOI} = \$150,000 – (\$12,000 + \$5,000 + \$8,000) \] \[ \text{NOI} = \$150,000 – \$25,000 = \$125,000 \] The annual debt service of \(\$60,000\) is not included in this calculation. It is a financing cost specific to the current owner’s loan, not an expense related to the day-to-day operation of the property. To find the Before-Tax Cash Flow (BTCF), the debt service would be subtracted from the NOI, demonstrating it is a separate step in the analysis: \[ \text{BTCF} = \text{NOI} – \text{Debt Service} = \$125,000 – \$60,000 = \$65,000 \] Net Operating Income, or NOI, is a critical metric in commercial and investment real estate analysis. It represents the income generated by a property after accounting for all the necessary expenses to run it. The key purpose of NOI is to measure the property’s intrinsic ability to produce profit from its operations, completely separate from the owner’s financing decisions or tax situation. Operating expenses are costs directly associated with maintaining and managing the property, such as property taxes, insurance, utilities, maintenance, repairs, and professional management fees. Items that are explicitly excluded from the operating expense category when calculating NOI are debt service (mortgage principal and interest), capital expenditures (major improvements like a new roof), depreciation, and the owner’s income taxes. Debt service is a financing cost, not an operational one. A new buyer will secure their own financing with different terms, so including the seller’s mortgage payments would distort the property’s true operational performance. Appraisers and investors rely on NOI to apply a capitalization rate to determine a property’s market value, a process that requires a standardized income figure untainted by individual financing arrangements.
Incorrect
The calculation to determine Net Operating Income (NOI) is based on the property’s operational revenue and expenses, independent of financing. The formula is: \[ \text{Net Operating Income (NOI)} = \text{Effective Gross Income (EGI)} – \text{Operating Expenses (OE)} \] Let’s assume a hypothetical property with an EGI of \(\$150,000\). The operating expenses include property taxes (\(\$12,000\)), insurance (\(\$5,000\)), and maintenance (\(\$8,000\)). The seller’s current annual mortgage payment (debt service) is \(\$60,000\). To correctly calculate NOI, we only subtract the operating expenses from the EGI: \[ \text{NOI} = \$150,000 – (\$12,000 + \$5,000 + \$8,000) \] \[ \text{NOI} = \$150,000 – \$25,000 = \$125,000 \] The annual debt service of \(\$60,000\) is not included in this calculation. It is a financing cost specific to the current owner’s loan, not an expense related to the day-to-day operation of the property. To find the Before-Tax Cash Flow (BTCF), the debt service would be subtracted from the NOI, demonstrating it is a separate step in the analysis: \[ \text{BTCF} = \text{NOI} – \text{Debt Service} = \$125,000 – \$60,000 = \$65,000 \] Net Operating Income, or NOI, is a critical metric in commercial and investment real estate analysis. It represents the income generated by a property after accounting for all the necessary expenses to run it. The key purpose of NOI is to measure the property’s intrinsic ability to produce profit from its operations, completely separate from the owner’s financing decisions or tax situation. Operating expenses are costs directly associated with maintaining and managing the property, such as property taxes, insurance, utilities, maintenance, repairs, and professional management fees. Items that are explicitly excluded from the operating expense category when calculating NOI are debt service (mortgage principal and interest), capital expenditures (major improvements like a new roof), depreciation, and the owner’s income taxes. Debt service is a financing cost, not an operational one. A new buyer will secure their own financing with different terms, so including the seller’s mortgage payments would distort the property’s true operational performance. Appraisers and investors rely on NOI to apply a capitalization rate to determine a property’s market value, a process that requires a standardized income figure untainted by individual financing arrangements.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Consider a scenario involving a property in Deschutes County, Oregon, purchased by three individuals: Anya, Ben, and Carlos. The deed explicitly conveyed the property to them “as joint tenants with right of survivorship.” Facing financial difficulties, Carlos had a judgment lien recorded against his one-third interest in the property by a creditor. Before the creditor could initiate foreclosure proceedings, Carlos unexpectedly passed away. What is the legal status of the property’s title and the creditor’s lien immediately following Carlos’s death?
Correct
The initial ownership structure is a joint tenancy with right of survivorship among Anya, Ben, and Carlos. A core feature of this tenancy is the right of survivorship, which dictates that upon the death of one joint tenant, their interest in the property is automatically and immediately extinguished and absorbed by the surviving joint tenants. This transfer occurs by operation of law, outside of the probate process. In this scenario, Carlos’s interest was encumbered by a judgment lien. In Oregon, the mere attachment of a lien to a joint tenant’s interest does not sever the joint tenancy. Severance would typically require an action like a sale or a foreclosure sale of the interest before the debtor’s death. Since Carlos died before the creditor could execute the lien through foreclosure, the right of survivorship takes precedence. At the moment of Carlos’s death, his interest in the property ceased to exist. Consequently, the lien that was attached to that specific interest was also extinguished. The property itself was never fully encumbered, only Carlos’s fractional, undivided interest was. Anya and Ben, as the surviving joint tenants, automatically absorb Carlos’s former interest, taking the entire property free and clear of the creditor’s lien. The creditor’s recourse is against Carlos’s personal estate, if any, but not against the real property now solely owned by Anya and Ben. The title now vests entirely in Anya and Ben, who continue as joint tenants with each other, each holding a one-half undivided interest.
Incorrect
The initial ownership structure is a joint tenancy with right of survivorship among Anya, Ben, and Carlos. A core feature of this tenancy is the right of survivorship, which dictates that upon the death of one joint tenant, their interest in the property is automatically and immediately extinguished and absorbed by the surviving joint tenants. This transfer occurs by operation of law, outside of the probate process. In this scenario, Carlos’s interest was encumbered by a judgment lien. In Oregon, the mere attachment of a lien to a joint tenant’s interest does not sever the joint tenancy. Severance would typically require an action like a sale or a foreclosure sale of the interest before the debtor’s death. Since Carlos died before the creditor could execute the lien through foreclosure, the right of survivorship takes precedence. At the moment of Carlos’s death, his interest in the property ceased to exist. Consequently, the lien that was attached to that specific interest was also extinguished. The property itself was never fully encumbered, only Carlos’s fractional, undivided interest was. Anya and Ben, as the surviving joint tenants, automatically absorb Carlos’s former interest, taking the entire property free and clear of the creditor’s lien. The creditor’s recourse is against Carlos’s personal estate, if any, but not against the real property now solely owned by Anya and Ben. The title now vests entirely in Anya and Ben, who continue as joint tenants with each other, each holding a one-half undivided interest.