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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
An assessment of a licensee’s obligations under Oregon law is required in the following situation. Kenji, an experienced Oregon real estate broker, is contacted by a regional bank’s asset management department. The bank is evaluating its portfolio and needs an opinion of the probable selling price for a property subject to a loan modification. The bank specifically requests that Kenji prepare a formal “Broker Price Opinion” (BPO) and offers to pay him a fee for the service. To legally and ethically fulfill this request, what is the most critical action Kenji must take?
Correct
The correct action is dictated by Oregon Revised Statute 696.294, which governs the creation of broker price opinions (BPOs). According to this statute, a real estate licensee in Oregon is permitted to prepare a BPO for compensation for a third party, such as a financial institution, for purposes other than originating a federally related transaction loan. However, the law imposes a critical and non-negotiable requirement. The licensee must include a specific, mandatory statement in the BPO report. This statement must explicitly declare that the report is a broker price opinion, that it is not an appraisal of the market value of the real estate, and that it was not prepared in accordance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP). This disclosure is paramount because it clearly distinguishes the licensee’s work from that of a licensed or certified appraiser, preventing the BPO from being misrepresented or misused as a formal appraisal. Failing to include this specific language would be a violation of Oregon law and could be considered the unauthorized practice of appraisal. While other professional standards like competence and supervision are important, this explicit statutory disclosure is the most critical legal requirement for the BPO itself.
Incorrect
The correct action is dictated by Oregon Revised Statute 696.294, which governs the creation of broker price opinions (BPOs). According to this statute, a real estate licensee in Oregon is permitted to prepare a BPO for compensation for a third party, such as a financial institution, for purposes other than originating a federally related transaction loan. However, the law imposes a critical and non-negotiable requirement. The licensee must include a specific, mandatory statement in the BPO report. This statement must explicitly declare that the report is a broker price opinion, that it is not an appraisal of the market value of the real estate, and that it was not prepared in accordance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP). This disclosure is paramount because it clearly distinguishes the licensee’s work from that of a licensed or certified appraiser, preventing the BPO from being misrepresented or misused as a formal appraisal. Failing to include this specific language would be a violation of Oregon law and could be considered the unauthorized practice of appraisal. While other professional standards like competence and supervision are important, this explicit statutory disclosure is the most critical legal requirement for the BPO itself.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
An assessment of a complex real estate transaction reveals a dispute over contract formation. Priya and Kenji submitted a full-price offer for a property using a standard Oregon Real Estate Forms (OREF) sale agreement, stipulating an acceptance deadline of 5:00 PM on Friday. At 4:00 PM on Friday, the seller, Mr. Finch, had his agent deliver a fully executed copy of the sale agreement to the buyers’ agent. Attached to the agreement was a separate, signed addendum which stated: “Seller accepts all terms herein. Seller further requests that Buyers agree to extend the closing date by seven (7) calendar days to facilitate Seller’s moving schedule.” Before Priya and Kenji could respond to the addendum, Mr. Finch received a substantially higher offer and now contends he is free to accept it. Based on these events, what is the legal status of the agreement between Mr. Finch and Priya and Kenji?
Correct
A valid, binding contract was formed at 4:00 PM on Friday when Mr. Finch’s agent communicated the signed acceptance to Priya and Kenji’s agent. The formation of a contract requires a meeting of the minds, which is achieved through a valid offer and a corresponding unequivocal acceptance. The “mirror image rule” in contract law dictates that an acceptance must be an absolute and unqualified agreement to the precise terms of the offer. If the purported acceptance alters any material term of the original offer, it is not an acceptance but a counteroffer, which serves as a rejection of the original offer. In this scenario, Mr. Finch signed the sale agreement, indicating his acceptance of all of its original terms, including the price and the initial closing date. The key element is the language used in the separate addendum. The phrase “Seller further requests that Buyers agree to extend the closing date” is precatory language, meaning it expresses a wish or a hope rather than a condition. It is not conditional language, such as “Seller’s acceptance is conditioned upon…” or “Seller accepts provided that…” Because the acceptance of the core terms was definite and communicated, a contract was formed. The addendum acts as a post-formation proposal to amend the now-existing contract. Priya and Kenji are free to either accept or reject this proposed modification without affecting the validity of the contract they already have. Since a binding contract exists, Mr. Finch cannot unilaterally terminate it to accept a different offer. He is legally bound to the terms of the agreement with Priya and Kenji.
Incorrect
A valid, binding contract was formed at 4:00 PM on Friday when Mr. Finch’s agent communicated the signed acceptance to Priya and Kenji’s agent. The formation of a contract requires a meeting of the minds, which is achieved through a valid offer and a corresponding unequivocal acceptance. The “mirror image rule” in contract law dictates that an acceptance must be an absolute and unqualified agreement to the precise terms of the offer. If the purported acceptance alters any material term of the original offer, it is not an acceptance but a counteroffer, which serves as a rejection of the original offer. In this scenario, Mr. Finch signed the sale agreement, indicating his acceptance of all of its original terms, including the price and the initial closing date. The key element is the language used in the separate addendum. The phrase “Seller further requests that Buyers agree to extend the closing date” is precatory language, meaning it expresses a wish or a hope rather than a condition. It is not conditional language, such as “Seller’s acceptance is conditioned upon…” or “Seller accepts provided that…” Because the acceptance of the core terms was definite and communicated, a contract was formed. The addendum acts as a post-formation proposal to amend the now-existing contract. Priya and Kenji are free to either accept or reject this proposed modification without affecting the validity of the contract they already have. Since a binding contract exists, Mr. Finch cannot unilaterally terminate it to accept a different offer. He is legally bound to the terms of the agreement with Priya and Kenji.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider a scenario involving a residential property in an Oregon county. For the past decade, the property’s Maximum Assessed Value (MAV) has increased by the statutory 3% each year, while its Real Market Value (RMV) has consistently been significantly higher. Following a downturn in the regional economy, the county assessor determines that for the upcoming tax year, the property’s RMV has fallen below its calculated MAV. Based on the principles of Oregon’s Measure 50, what is the direct consequence for determining the property’s tax basis?
Correct
Let’s assume a property’s Maximum Assessed Value (MAV) from the previous year was \( \$500,000 \). Under Measure 50, the MAV for the current year can increase by a maximum of 3%. The new calculated MAV would be: \[ \$500,000 \times 1.03 = \$515,000 \] In a typical market, the Real Market Value (RMV) might be higher, for instance, \( \$550,000 \). In that case, the Assessed Value (AV) would be the lesser of the two, which is the MAV of \( \$515,000 \). However, in the scenario where the market declines, let’s say the new RMV drops to \( \$490,000 \). To determine the new AV, we compare the new MAV (\( \$515,000 \)) with the new RMV (\( \$490,000 \)). The AV is legally required to be the lower of these two values. \[ \text{AV} = \min(\text{MAV}, \text{RMV}) = \min(\$515,000, \$490,000) = \$490,000 \] Therefore, the property’s Assessed Value for tax purposes becomes \( \$490,000 \). Under Oregon’s property tax system, which was fundamentally shaped by Measure 50 in 1997, a property’s tax liability is based on its Assessed Value (AV). The AV is determined annually and is legally defined as the lesser of the property’s Real Market Value (RMV) and its Maximum Assessed Value (MAV). The RMV is the county assessor’s estimate of the price the property would sell for on the assessment date. This value can fluctuate up or down based on market conditions. The MAV is a value established for tax limitation purposes; it generally increases by a maximum of three percent each year, providing a cap on assessment growth in a rising market. When the real estate market is appreciating, the RMV is typically higher than the MAV, and the AV is therefore set at the MAV. This protects homeowners from sharp tax increases driven by market speculation. Conversely, if market conditions cause the RMV to fall below the property’s MAV, the AV for that tax year must be reduced to match the lower RMV. This ensures that a property owner is not taxed on a value that is higher than the property’s current market worth.
Incorrect
Let’s assume a property’s Maximum Assessed Value (MAV) from the previous year was \( \$500,000 \). Under Measure 50, the MAV for the current year can increase by a maximum of 3%. The new calculated MAV would be: \[ \$500,000 \times 1.03 = \$515,000 \] In a typical market, the Real Market Value (RMV) might be higher, for instance, \( \$550,000 \). In that case, the Assessed Value (AV) would be the lesser of the two, which is the MAV of \( \$515,000 \). However, in the scenario where the market declines, let’s say the new RMV drops to \( \$490,000 \). To determine the new AV, we compare the new MAV (\( \$515,000 \)) with the new RMV (\( \$490,000 \)). The AV is legally required to be the lower of these two values. \[ \text{AV} = \min(\text{MAV}, \text{RMV}) = \min(\$515,000, \$490,000) = \$490,000 \] Therefore, the property’s Assessed Value for tax purposes becomes \( \$490,000 \). Under Oregon’s property tax system, which was fundamentally shaped by Measure 50 in 1997, a property’s tax liability is based on its Assessed Value (AV). The AV is determined annually and is legally defined as the lesser of the property’s Real Market Value (RMV) and its Maximum Assessed Value (MAV). The RMV is the county assessor’s estimate of the price the property would sell for on the assessment date. This value can fluctuate up or down based on market conditions. The MAV is a value established for tax limitation purposes; it generally increases by a maximum of three percent each year, providing a cap on assessment growth in a rising market. When the real estate market is appreciating, the RMV is typically higher than the MAV, and the AV is therefore set at the MAV. This protects homeowners from sharp tax increases driven by market speculation. Conversely, if market conditions cause the RMV to fall below the property’s MAV, the AV for that tax year must be reduced to match the lower RMV. This ensures that a property owner is not taxed on a value that is higher than the property’s current market worth.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Assessment of a potential listing in a rural Oregon county reveals a complication. The seller, Anika, inherited the property and has never lived there. During a preliminary neighborhood inquiry, a long-time resident informs the listing broker, Mateo, that the property was widely rumored to be an illegal methamphetamine lab several years ago, though no official notices are posted. Anika has no knowledge of this. Given this information, what is Mateo’s primary professional responsibility according to Oregon law and professional standards?
Correct
Under Oregon law, specifically ORS 453.855 through 453.912, properties used for illegal drug manufacturing are subject to strict regulations to protect public health. When a real estate licensee has reason to believe a property may have been used as a drug lab, even based on credible rumors, this constitutes a potential material fact. The primary responsibility is not simply to disclose the rumor, but to advise the seller on the legal pathway to address the potential contamination. The Oregon Health Authority (OHA) and the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) maintain lists of contaminated properties. A property officially identified as a former lab is deemed “unfit for use” until it is decontaminated by a licensed contractor following OHA protocols. After successful cleanup, a Certificate of Fitness is issued, which is required for the property to be legally sold, transferred, or occupied. Therefore, the licensee’s professional duty of care involves guiding the seller to ascertain the property’s official status. This may involve checking the DEQ’s contaminated site list or advising the seller to engage a licensed professional for assessment. Proceeding to market the property without addressing this significant potential health and legal issue would be a breach of the licensee’s duties to the seller and the public. The core issue is ensuring the property is legally fit for transfer, which goes beyond a simple disclosure of an unverified rumor.
Incorrect
Under Oregon law, specifically ORS 453.855 through 453.912, properties used for illegal drug manufacturing are subject to strict regulations to protect public health. When a real estate licensee has reason to believe a property may have been used as a drug lab, even based on credible rumors, this constitutes a potential material fact. The primary responsibility is not simply to disclose the rumor, but to advise the seller on the legal pathway to address the potential contamination. The Oregon Health Authority (OHA) and the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) maintain lists of contaminated properties. A property officially identified as a former lab is deemed “unfit for use” until it is decontaminated by a licensed contractor following OHA protocols. After successful cleanup, a Certificate of Fitness is issued, which is required for the property to be legally sold, transferred, or occupied. Therefore, the licensee’s professional duty of care involves guiding the seller to ascertain the property’s official status. This may involve checking the DEQ’s contaminated site list or advising the seller to engage a licensed professional for assessment. Proceeding to market the property without addressing this significant potential health and legal issue would be a breach of the licensee’s duties to the seller and the public. The core issue is ensuring the property is legally fit for transfer, which goes beyond a simple disclosure of an unverified rumor.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider a scenario involving a principal’s liability towards their agent. Alistair, the seller of a vintage property in Eugene, provides his agent, Beatrice, with a falsified engineering report stating the old wiring was completely replaced. Beatrice, having no reason to doubt the report’s authenticity, includes this information in the marketing materials. A buyer, after closing, discovers the original, hazardous knob-and-tube wiring remains and sues Beatrice for misrepresentation. Beatrice successfully defends the lawsuit but incurs substantial legal costs. Under Oregon agency law, which specific duty did Alistair, the principal, most directly breach in relation to the financial losses Beatrice incurred from the lawsuit?
Correct
In a principal-agent relationship under Oregon law, the principal owes the agent several fiduciary duties. These duties are often summarized as compensation, indemnification, information, and cooperation. The duty of indemnification is particularly relevant in this situation. This duty obligates the principal to protect the agent from any financial loss or liability incurred while the agent is acting in good faith and within the scope of their authority, based on information provided by the principal. When a principal provides false or misleading information, and the agent relies on that information to their detriment, the principal has breached their duties. In the described scenario, the agent acted reasonably by relying on a report provided by their client. The subsequent lawsuit and legal fees are a direct financial loss resulting from the principal’s deceit. The duty of indemnification requires the principal to reimburse the agent for these costs. This is distinct from the duty of compensation, which relates to the payment of the agreed-upon commission. It is also more specific than the general duty of cooperation, which involves not hindering the agent’s work. The core issue is the financial harm suffered by the agent due to the principal’s misrepresentation, which squarely falls under the principal’s obligation to indemnify.
Incorrect
In a principal-agent relationship under Oregon law, the principal owes the agent several fiduciary duties. These duties are often summarized as compensation, indemnification, information, and cooperation. The duty of indemnification is particularly relevant in this situation. This duty obligates the principal to protect the agent from any financial loss or liability incurred while the agent is acting in good faith and within the scope of their authority, based on information provided by the principal. When a principal provides false or misleading information, and the agent relies on that information to their detriment, the principal has breached their duties. In the described scenario, the agent acted reasonably by relying on a report provided by their client. The subsequent lawsuit and legal fees are a direct financial loss resulting from the principal’s deceit. The duty of indemnification requires the principal to reimburse the agent for these costs. This is distinct from the duty of compensation, which relates to the payment of the agreed-upon commission. It is also more specific than the general duty of cooperation, which involves not hindering the agent’s work. The core issue is the financial harm suffered by the agent due to the principal’s misrepresentation, which squarely falls under the principal’s obligation to indemnify.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Anika, a licensed appraiser in Oregon, is tasked with determining the market value of a historic, single-tenant commercial building in Ashland. The property, which operates as a successful independent bookstore, has a stable, long-term lease agreement. Anika’s research confirms there have been no sales of comparable historic commercial buildings in the immediate region within the last three years, and the building’s unique early 20th-century architectural features make estimating depreciation complex. In the final reconciliation process, which appraisal approach should Anika accord the most significant weight, and what is the primary justification for this decision?
Correct
The core of this appraisal problem lies in the principle of reconciliation. An appraiser often develops value indications from multiple approaches, such as the Sales Comparison, Cost, and Income approaches. The final step, reconciliation, is not about averaging the results. Instead, it involves the appraiser giving the most weight to the approach considered most relevant and reliable for the specific property type and the available data. In this scenario, the subject property is a unique, income-producing commercial building. The primary challenge is the lack of recent, truly comparable sales, which severely undermines the reliability of the Sales Comparison Approach. While this approach is often paramount for residential properties, its applicability diminishes when suitable comparables do not exist. The Cost Approach, which calculates value based on replacement cost minus depreciation plus land value, can be used for unique properties. However, for a historic building, accurately estimating accrued depreciation, particularly functional and economic obsolescence, can be highly subjective and difficult. The most compelling attribute of this property from a market perspective is its stable, long-term lease, which provides a consistent income stream. For any potential investor, this predictable return is the primary driver of the property’s value. Therefore, the Income Approach, which directly analyzes this income-generating capacity, provides the most persuasive and supportable indication of market value. The appraiser would conclude that the property’s ability to produce income is the most critical factor and would therefore assign the most significant weight to the value derived from the Income Approach during the final reconciliation process.
Incorrect
The core of this appraisal problem lies in the principle of reconciliation. An appraiser often develops value indications from multiple approaches, such as the Sales Comparison, Cost, and Income approaches. The final step, reconciliation, is not about averaging the results. Instead, it involves the appraiser giving the most weight to the approach considered most relevant and reliable for the specific property type and the available data. In this scenario, the subject property is a unique, income-producing commercial building. The primary challenge is the lack of recent, truly comparable sales, which severely undermines the reliability of the Sales Comparison Approach. While this approach is often paramount for residential properties, its applicability diminishes when suitable comparables do not exist. The Cost Approach, which calculates value based on replacement cost minus depreciation plus land value, can be used for unique properties. However, for a historic building, accurately estimating accrued depreciation, particularly functional and economic obsolescence, can be highly subjective and difficult. The most compelling attribute of this property from a market perspective is its stable, long-term lease, which provides a consistent income stream. For any potential investor, this predictable return is the primary driver of the property’s value. Therefore, the Income Approach, which directly analyzes this income-generating capacity, provides the most persuasive and supportable indication of market value. The appraiser would conclude that the property’s ability to produce income is the most critical factor and would therefore assign the most significant weight to the value derived from the Income Approach during the final reconciliation process.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Assessment of a newly constructed residence in a developing Oregon subdivision establishes its Real Market Value (RMV) and initial Assessed Value (AV) at $620,000. The applicable tax rates for the district’s operating levies are $10.50 per $1,000 of assessed value for general government and $5.25 per $1,000 for schools. An analysis of the final property tax statement reveals that the total tax liability for these specific levies is significantly less than the amount calculated by simply applying the combined rates to the Assessed Value. What is the precise legal mechanism under Oregon law that accounts for this tax reduction?
Correct
The property’s Assessed Value (AV) is the lesser of its Real Market Value (RMV) and its Maximum Assessed Value (MAV). For a newly constructed property, the AV is typically set equal to the RMV. In this case, the AV is $620,000. First, calculate the potential tax for each category based on the Assessed Value before considering any constitutional limits. Potential Government Tax: \( \frac{\$10.50}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$6,510 \) Potential School Tax: \( \frac{\$5.25}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$3,255 \) Next, determine the maximum tax allowed under Oregon’s Measure 5 constitutional limits. These limits are calculated against the property’s Real Market Value (RMV), not its Assessed Value. Measure 5 Government Limit: \( \frac{\$10.00}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$6,000 \) Measure 5 School Limit: \( \frac{\$5.00}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$3,100 \) Finally, compare the potential tax to the Measure 5 limits. If the potential tax exceeds the limit, the tax is reduced, or “compressed,” to the maximum allowed amount. The potential government tax of $6,510 exceeds the $6,000 limit and is compressed to $6,000. The potential school tax of $3,255 exceeds the $3,100 limit and is compressed to $3,100. The final tax bill for these operating levies is the sum of the compressed amounts: \( \$6,000 + \$3,100 = \$9,100 \). The reduction from the potential total of $9,765 to the final amount of $9,100 is due entirely to the application of Measure 5 limits. This system ensures that taxes for general government operations and schools do not exceed a certain percentage of the property’s real market value, providing a cap on the tax burden irrespective of the specific levy rates passed by taxing districts.
Incorrect
The property’s Assessed Value (AV) is the lesser of its Real Market Value (RMV) and its Maximum Assessed Value (MAV). For a newly constructed property, the AV is typically set equal to the RMV. In this case, the AV is $620,000. First, calculate the potential tax for each category based on the Assessed Value before considering any constitutional limits. Potential Government Tax: \( \frac{\$10.50}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$6,510 \) Potential School Tax: \( \frac{\$5.25}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$3,255 \) Next, determine the maximum tax allowed under Oregon’s Measure 5 constitutional limits. These limits are calculated against the property’s Real Market Value (RMV), not its Assessed Value. Measure 5 Government Limit: \( \frac{\$10.00}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$6,000 \) Measure 5 School Limit: \( \frac{\$5.00}{\$1,000} \times \$620,000 = \$3,100 \) Finally, compare the potential tax to the Measure 5 limits. If the potential tax exceeds the limit, the tax is reduced, or “compressed,” to the maximum allowed amount. The potential government tax of $6,510 exceeds the $6,000 limit and is compressed to $6,000. The potential school tax of $3,255 exceeds the $3,100 limit and is compressed to $3,100. The final tax bill for these operating levies is the sum of the compressed amounts: \( \$6,000 + \$3,100 = \$9,100 \). The reduction from the potential total of $9,765 to the final amount of $9,100 is due entirely to the application of Measure 5 limits. This system ensures that taxes for general government operations and schools do not exceed a certain percentage of the property’s real market value, providing a cap on the tax burden irrespective of the specific levy rates passed by taxing districts.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
An assessment of the professional relationship between Mei, an Oregon principal broker, and Kenji, an out-of-state investor, reveals a detailed property management agreement. Under this agreement, Mei’s brokerage is tasked with managing Kenji’s four rental properties in Eugene. Her duties include advertising vacancies, executing lease agreements on behalf of Kenji, collecting monthly rents, and authorizing repairs up to a specified limit. Based on the scope and continuous nature of these responsibilities, what type of agency relationship does Mei have with Kenji for the management of these properties?
Correct
The correct classification for the relationship is a general agency. A general agency relationship is established when a principal delegates to an agent ongoing authority to conduct a series of transactions or manage a continuous business enterprise. In this scenario, the principal broker is not engaged in a single, specific act, such as listing one property for sale. Instead, she is responsible for the comprehensive and continuous management of the investor’s entire property portfolio. This includes a wide range of duties like advertising, tenant screening, executing lease agreements, rent collection, and overseeing maintenance. These tasks represent a continuous stream of business activities rather than a one-time objective. This contrasts sharply with a special agency, which is the most common form in residential real estate sales. A special agent is authorized to perform only a specific act or transaction, like finding a buyer for a particular house. Once that single goal is achieved, the agency relationship terminates. A universal agency is the broadest type, granting the agent the authority to transact all of the principal’s business of every kind, typically through a comprehensive power of attorney. The broker’s authority here is clearly limited to the business of managing the properties, not all of the investor’s affairs, making universal agency an incorrect classification. The relationship described is a clear example of a general agency due to its broad scope within a specific business context and its ongoing nature.
Incorrect
The correct classification for the relationship is a general agency. A general agency relationship is established when a principal delegates to an agent ongoing authority to conduct a series of transactions or manage a continuous business enterprise. In this scenario, the principal broker is not engaged in a single, specific act, such as listing one property for sale. Instead, she is responsible for the comprehensive and continuous management of the investor’s entire property portfolio. This includes a wide range of duties like advertising, tenant screening, executing lease agreements, rent collection, and overseeing maintenance. These tasks represent a continuous stream of business activities rather than a one-time objective. This contrasts sharply with a special agency, which is the most common form in residential real estate sales. A special agent is authorized to perform only a specific act or transaction, like finding a buyer for a particular house. Once that single goal is achieved, the agency relationship terminates. A universal agency is the broadest type, granting the agent the authority to transact all of the principal’s business of every kind, typically through a comprehensive power of attorney. The broker’s authority here is clearly limited to the business of managing the properties, not all of the investor’s affairs, making universal agency an incorrect classification. The relationship described is a clear example of a general agency due to its broad scope within a specific business context and its ongoing nature.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Implementation of a new marketing strategy by ‘The Cascade Property Collective,’ a team operating under the ‘Willamette Valley Realty’ brokerage, raises questions about advertising compliance. Amara, a broker on the team, designs a digital advertisement for a popular social media platform. To ensure full compliance with Oregon Administrative Rules regarding advertising, which set of information is fundamentally required to be included in the ad?
Correct
Step 1: Identify the controlling Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) for real estate advertising, which is OAR 863-015-0125. Step 2: Analyze the primary requirement of this rule. All advertising by a real estate broker must be done under the direct supervision of their principal broker and must clearly and conspicuously state the principal broker’s licensed or registered business name. Step 3: Analyze the requirement for licensee identification. The rule mandates that the advertising must contain the name of the real estate licensee placing the advertisement, as licensed with the Oregon Real Estate Agency (OREA). Step 4: Analyze the specific rules for team or group advertising. A team name may be used, but it cannot be more prominent than the principal broker’s licensed business name. The advertisement must not mislead the public into believing the team is a separate, independent real estate business. Step 5: Synthesize the requirements for the given scenario. The digital ad is placed by Amara, a broker. Therefore, the ad must contain her licensed name. She is part of a team operating under a brokerage. Therefore, the ad must contain the licensed business name of the brokerage, Willamette Valley Realty. The team name, The Cascade Property Collective, is secondary and its inclusion does not negate the primary requirement of identifying the licensee and the brokerage. Step 6: Conclude the absolute minimum requirement for compliance. Based on the synthesis of the rules, the fundamental and non-negotiable elements that must be included in the advertisement for it to be compliant are the licensee’s name (Amara) and the principal broker’s licensed business name (Willamette Valley Realty). Oregon law is designed to ensure transparency and prevent public confusion in real estate advertising. The Oregon Real Estate Agency mandates through its administrative rules that a consumer must always be able to identify the licensed brokerage responsible for the services being offered. According to OAR 863-015-0125, any advertisement for professional real estate activity must clearly and conspicuously feature the licensed business name of the principal broker. This rule applies to all forms of advertising, including digital and social media. Furthermore, the advertisement must also identify the licensee who is placing it. While the use of team names or group branding is permitted, these names must not be presented more prominently than the brokerage’s licensed name. The core principle is that the public should never be misled into thinking a team is an independent entity. The ultimate responsibility for supervision and conduct lies with the principal broker, and therefore, their identity must be paramount in all marketing materials. Failing to include the licensee’s name and the brokerage’s licensed business name is a direct violation of these professional conduct standards and can result in disciplinary action from the OREA.
Incorrect
Step 1: Identify the controlling Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) for real estate advertising, which is OAR 863-015-0125. Step 2: Analyze the primary requirement of this rule. All advertising by a real estate broker must be done under the direct supervision of their principal broker and must clearly and conspicuously state the principal broker’s licensed or registered business name. Step 3: Analyze the requirement for licensee identification. The rule mandates that the advertising must contain the name of the real estate licensee placing the advertisement, as licensed with the Oregon Real Estate Agency (OREA). Step 4: Analyze the specific rules for team or group advertising. A team name may be used, but it cannot be more prominent than the principal broker’s licensed business name. The advertisement must not mislead the public into believing the team is a separate, independent real estate business. Step 5: Synthesize the requirements for the given scenario. The digital ad is placed by Amara, a broker. Therefore, the ad must contain her licensed name. She is part of a team operating under a brokerage. Therefore, the ad must contain the licensed business name of the brokerage, Willamette Valley Realty. The team name, The Cascade Property Collective, is secondary and its inclusion does not negate the primary requirement of identifying the licensee and the brokerage. Step 6: Conclude the absolute minimum requirement for compliance. Based on the synthesis of the rules, the fundamental and non-negotiable elements that must be included in the advertisement for it to be compliant are the licensee’s name (Amara) and the principal broker’s licensed business name (Willamette Valley Realty). Oregon law is designed to ensure transparency and prevent public confusion in real estate advertising. The Oregon Real Estate Agency mandates through its administrative rules that a consumer must always be able to identify the licensed brokerage responsible for the services being offered. According to OAR 863-015-0125, any advertisement for professional real estate activity must clearly and conspicuously feature the licensed business name of the principal broker. This rule applies to all forms of advertising, including digital and social media. Furthermore, the advertisement must also identify the licensee who is placing it. While the use of team names or group branding is permitted, these names must not be presented more prominently than the brokerage’s licensed name. The core principle is that the public should never be misled into thinking a team is an independent entity. The ultimate responsibility for supervision and conduct lies with the principal broker, and therefore, their identity must be paramount in all marketing materials. Failing to include the licensee’s name and the brokerage’s licensed business name is a direct violation of these professional conduct standards and can result in disciplinary action from the OREA.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider a scenario involving a property in Portland, Oregon. Amara and Ben, a legally married couple, purchased a home together. The conveyance deed simply stated their names as grantees without specifying the form of co-ownership. Several years later, they legally divorced. Shortly after the finalization of the divorce, Amara tragically passed away. Her valid will names her sister, Chloe, as the sole heir to all her real and personal property. Ben asserts that due to Amara’s death, he is now the sole owner of the entire property. What is the correct legal status of the property’s ownership following these events?
Correct
In Oregon, when a conveyance is made to a married couple, the law presumes the creation of a tenancy by the entirety, even if the deed does not explicitly state this form of ownership. This special form of co-ownership includes the right of survivorship, meaning if one spouse dies, the surviving spouse automatically inherits the entire property. However, a critical event that alters this arrangement is divorce. Under Oregon law, a divorce automatically severs the tenancy by the entirety. The moment the divorce is finalized, the ownership legally converts to a tenancy in common between the now ex-spouses, with each typically holding an equal, undivided interest. A tenancy in common is fundamentally different from a tenancy by the entirety or a joint tenancy because it does not include the right of survivorship. Each tenant in common owns a separate, fractional interest in the property which they can sell, devise, or inherit independently. In the given scenario, the divorce converted the ownership to a tenancy in common. Therefore, when one of the ex-spouses passed away, their share of the property did not automatically transfer to the surviving ex-spouse. Instead, their interest became part of their estate and would be distributed according to the terms of their valid will or, if there was no will, by the state’s intestacy laws. The designated heir in the will would inherit that specific ownership interest and become a new tenant in common with the surviving ex-spouse.
Incorrect
In Oregon, when a conveyance is made to a married couple, the law presumes the creation of a tenancy by the entirety, even if the deed does not explicitly state this form of ownership. This special form of co-ownership includes the right of survivorship, meaning if one spouse dies, the surviving spouse automatically inherits the entire property. However, a critical event that alters this arrangement is divorce. Under Oregon law, a divorce automatically severs the tenancy by the entirety. The moment the divorce is finalized, the ownership legally converts to a tenancy in common between the now ex-spouses, with each typically holding an equal, undivided interest. A tenancy in common is fundamentally different from a tenancy by the entirety or a joint tenancy because it does not include the right of survivorship. Each tenant in common owns a separate, fractional interest in the property which they can sell, devise, or inherit independently. In the given scenario, the divorce converted the ownership to a tenancy in common. Therefore, when one of the ex-spouses passed away, their share of the property did not automatically transfer to the surviving ex-spouse. Instead, their interest became part of their estate and would be distributed according to the terms of their valid will or, if there was no will, by the state’s intestacy laws. The designated heir in the will would inherit that specific ownership interest and become a new tenant in common with the surviving ex-spouse.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Assessment of a complaint filed with the Oregon Real Estate Agency (OREA) against Principal Broker Akemi reveals two primary issues. First, a client alleges that a broker under Akemi’s supervision made a significant material misrepresentation about a property’s foundation integrity. Second, the client claims Akemi’s brokerage has an internal policy that unfairly disadvantages certain classes of buyers, a policy which, while not explicitly violating a specific statute, appears to breach the spirit of fair dealing. Given the defined scope of OREA’s mission and authority, which of the following actions falls squarely within its power?
Correct
The core of the issue lies in understanding the statutory limits of the Oregon Real Estate Agency’s (OREA) authority. A complaint has been filed alleging a violation of license law (misrepresentation by a broker) and a failure of the principal broker to adequately supervise. OREA’s primary mission, as defined by Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) Chapter 696, is to protect the public by ensuring the competency and integrity of real estate licensees. Its authority is administrative, not judicial. Therefore, OREA’s legitimate course of action is to investigate the alleged misconduct. If the investigation substantiates the claims of misrepresentation and inadequate supervision, OREA can initiate disciplinary proceedings against the licensees involved. These proceedings could result in sanctions such as a formal reprimand, a civil penalty (fine), a requirement for additional education, or the suspension or revocation of the licenses. The agency’s power is confined to enforcing license law and administrative rules. It does not extend to adjudicating civil claims or awarding monetary damages to a harmed party; such remedies must be pursued through the court system. Similarly, OREA does not mediate contractual commission disputes between brokerages, nor does it have the authority to dictate specific, granular internal business procedures for a brokerage, although it can sanction a principal broker for failing to establish and maintain adequate policies and systems of supervision.
Incorrect
The core of the issue lies in understanding the statutory limits of the Oregon Real Estate Agency’s (OREA) authority. A complaint has been filed alleging a violation of license law (misrepresentation by a broker) and a failure of the principal broker to adequately supervise. OREA’s primary mission, as defined by Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS) Chapter 696, is to protect the public by ensuring the competency and integrity of real estate licensees. Its authority is administrative, not judicial. Therefore, OREA’s legitimate course of action is to investigate the alleged misconduct. If the investigation substantiates the claims of misrepresentation and inadequate supervision, OREA can initiate disciplinary proceedings against the licensees involved. These proceedings could result in sanctions such as a formal reprimand, a civil penalty (fine), a requirement for additional education, or the suspension or revocation of the licenses. The agency’s power is confined to enforcing license law and administrative rules. It does not extend to adjudicating civil claims or awarding monetary damages to a harmed party; such remedies must be pursued through the court system. Similarly, OREA does not mediate contractual commission disputes between brokerages, nor does it have the authority to dictate specific, granular internal business procedures for a brokerage, although it can sanction a principal broker for failing to establish and maintain adequate policies and systems of supervision.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Anika, a licensed Oregon surveyor, is examining a deed for a parcel of land. The metes and bounds description states a boundary line runs ‘…thence due East for 1,200 feet to an ancient, marked cedar tree located on the western bank of the Santiam River.’ Upon surveying the property, Anika discovers the actual distance to the marked cedar tree is 1,250 feet. A dispute arises between the adjoining property owners over the correct location of the boundary. According to Oregon’s principles for interpreting legal descriptions, how should this discrepancy be resolved?
Correct
The logical determination of the correct boundary follows a legal principle known as the hierarchy of controls for interpreting legal descriptions. 1. Identify the conflicting elements within the metes and bounds description: The stated distance (“1,200 feet”) is in conflict with the location of a monument (“an ancient, marked cedar tree”). 2. Apply the established order of precedence for these elements. This hierarchy dictates which element is considered more reliable and controlling in the event of a discrepancy. 3. The generally accepted hierarchy, from highest to lowest precedence, is: 1) Natural monuments (e.g., rivers, trees, rocks), 2) Artificial monuments (e.g., stakes, iron pins, specially marked objects), 3) Courses and distances (e.g., ‘due East for 1,200 feet’), and 4) Quantity or area (e.g., ‘5 acres’). 4. In this scenario, the “ancient, marked cedar tree” serves as both a natural and artificial monument. The “1,200 feet” is a distance measurement. 5. According to the hierarchy of controls, the monument (the tree) takes legal precedence over the conflicting distance measurement. The law presumes that the original parties intended for the boundary to run to the physical monument they could see, and that the stated distance was simply a descriptive measurement that might contain an error. 6. Therefore, the legally recognized boundary line extends to the actual location of the monument, which is 1,250 feet. In Oregon, as in most jurisdictions, the interpretation of a property’s legal description follows a well-established set of rules known as the hierarchy of controls. This hierarchy is used by courts and surveyors to resolve conflicts or ambiguities found within a deed’s description. The fundamental purpose is to ascertain the original intent of the parties at the time the conveyance was made. The order of priority is based on what is considered the most reliable evidence of that intent. Natural monuments, such as rivers, streams, and established trees, are given the highest priority because they are the most permanent and least likely to be moved. Following natural monuments are artificial monuments, which are human-made objects like stakes, fences, or marked stones. Next in the hierarchy are the calls for courses (direction) and distances. These are considered less reliable than monuments due to the potential for errors in surveying equipment or transcription. The least reliable element is the statement of area or quantity, such as the number of acres. In the given situation, a direct conflict exists between a stated distance and a monument. The ancient, marked cedar tree is a clear monument. Therefore, the call to the monument will control, and the boundary line will extend to the tree’s actual physical location, overriding the conflicting distance measurement in the deed.
Incorrect
The logical determination of the correct boundary follows a legal principle known as the hierarchy of controls for interpreting legal descriptions. 1. Identify the conflicting elements within the metes and bounds description: The stated distance (“1,200 feet”) is in conflict with the location of a monument (“an ancient, marked cedar tree”). 2. Apply the established order of precedence for these elements. This hierarchy dictates which element is considered more reliable and controlling in the event of a discrepancy. 3. The generally accepted hierarchy, from highest to lowest precedence, is: 1) Natural monuments (e.g., rivers, trees, rocks), 2) Artificial monuments (e.g., stakes, iron pins, specially marked objects), 3) Courses and distances (e.g., ‘due East for 1,200 feet’), and 4) Quantity or area (e.g., ‘5 acres’). 4. In this scenario, the “ancient, marked cedar tree” serves as both a natural and artificial monument. The “1,200 feet” is a distance measurement. 5. According to the hierarchy of controls, the monument (the tree) takes legal precedence over the conflicting distance measurement. The law presumes that the original parties intended for the boundary to run to the physical monument they could see, and that the stated distance was simply a descriptive measurement that might contain an error. 6. Therefore, the legally recognized boundary line extends to the actual location of the monument, which is 1,250 feet. In Oregon, as in most jurisdictions, the interpretation of a property’s legal description follows a well-established set of rules known as the hierarchy of controls. This hierarchy is used by courts and surveyors to resolve conflicts or ambiguities found within a deed’s description. The fundamental purpose is to ascertain the original intent of the parties at the time the conveyance was made. The order of priority is based on what is considered the most reliable evidence of that intent. Natural monuments, such as rivers, streams, and established trees, are given the highest priority because they are the most permanent and least likely to be moved. Following natural monuments are artificial monuments, which are human-made objects like stakes, fences, or marked stones. Next in the hierarchy are the calls for courses (direction) and distances. These are considered less reliable than monuments due to the potential for errors in surveying equipment or transcription. The least reliable element is the statement of area or quantity, such as the number of acres. In the given situation, a direct conflict exists between a stated distance and a monument. The ancient, marked cedar tree is a clear monument. Therefore, the call to the monument will control, and the boundary line will extend to the tree’s actual physical location, overriding the conflicting distance measurement in the deed.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider a scenario where the city council of Aurelia Springs, a rapidly growing Oregon municipality, is preparing a formal proposal to expand its Urban Growth Boundary (UGB). The council has conducted public hearings and gathered economic data. According to the principles established by Oregon’s statewide land use planning laws and the Land Conservation and Development Commission (LCDC), what is the most critical factor the city must definitively prove to justify the expansion?
Correct
N/A Oregon’s statewide land use planning system, established by Senate Bill 100, mandates that every city create an Urban Growth Boundary. The primary purpose of a UGB is to separate urban land from rural land, encouraging efficient development within cities while preserving farm and forest lands outside them. The Land Conservation and Development Commission, or LCDC, oversees this system. A UGB is not a permanent line; it must contain enough buildable land to accommodate the city’s projected population and employment growth for a 20-year period. When a city proposes to expand its UGB, it must undergo a rigorous justification process. The core legal requirement for this expansion is demonstrating a clear need. The city must prove to the LCDC that it has exhausted all reasonable options for accommodating growth within its existing boundary. This includes conducting a detailed inventory of available land and showing that measures to increase density, such as infill development, redevelopment, and allowing smaller lot sizes, are insufficient to meet the projected 20-year demand for housing and jobs. Only after this need is conclusively established can the process of selecting specific lands for inclusion into the UGB begin, following a set of locational criteria outlined in Statewide Planning Goal 14.
Incorrect
N/A Oregon’s statewide land use planning system, established by Senate Bill 100, mandates that every city create an Urban Growth Boundary. The primary purpose of a UGB is to separate urban land from rural land, encouraging efficient development within cities while preserving farm and forest lands outside them. The Land Conservation and Development Commission, or LCDC, oversees this system. A UGB is not a permanent line; it must contain enough buildable land to accommodate the city’s projected population and employment growth for a 20-year period. When a city proposes to expand its UGB, it must undergo a rigorous justification process. The core legal requirement for this expansion is demonstrating a clear need. The city must prove to the LCDC that it has exhausted all reasonable options for accommodating growth within its existing boundary. This includes conducting a detailed inventory of available land and showing that measures to increase density, such as infill development, redevelopment, and allowing smaller lot sizes, are insufficient to meet the projected 20-year demand for housing and jobs. Only after this need is conclusively established can the process of selecting specific lands for inclusion into the UGB begin, following a set of locational criteria outlined in Statewide Planning Goal 14.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Anya, a newly licensed real estate broker in Oregon, is preparing for her very first license renewal. Her initial license was issued 20 months ago. She consults with a seasoned principal broker from another firm, who advises that he recently satisfied his renewal requirement by completing 27 hours of elective courses on topics of his choice and the mandatory 3-hour law and rule course. Based on this advice, Anya plans to do the same. An assessment of Anya’s situation reveals a potential compliance issue. What is the critical distinction Anya must understand about her specific continuing education obligations?
Correct
The correct determination of continuing education requirements for an Oregon real estate broker depends on whether it is their first renewal or a subsequent one. For a broker’s very first license renewal, the Oregon Real Estate Agency mandates a specific curriculum totaling 30 hours. This is not a flexible requirement. The licensee must complete the 27-hour Broker Advanced Practices (BAP) course, which is designed to provide deeper practical knowledge beyond pre-licensing education. In addition to the BAP course, the broker must also complete the 3-hour Law and Rule Required Course (LARRC). The LARRC is updated for each two-year licensing cycle to reflect the most current legislative and regulatory changes impacting the industry. This requirement is distinct from the one for all subsequent license renewals. For a second or later renewal, a broker or principal broker must also complete 30 hours of continuing education. However, the structure is more flexible. The only mandatory component is the 3-hour LARRC. The remaining 27 hours can be comprised of any combination of OREA-approved continuing education elective courses. This allows experienced licensees to select topics that align with their specific business focus or professional development goals. Therefore, advice from a veteran licensee regarding their own flexible elective choices would be incorrect and misleading for a broker approaching their initial renewal deadline.
Incorrect
The correct determination of continuing education requirements for an Oregon real estate broker depends on whether it is their first renewal or a subsequent one. For a broker’s very first license renewal, the Oregon Real Estate Agency mandates a specific curriculum totaling 30 hours. This is not a flexible requirement. The licensee must complete the 27-hour Broker Advanced Practices (BAP) course, which is designed to provide deeper practical knowledge beyond pre-licensing education. In addition to the BAP course, the broker must also complete the 3-hour Law and Rule Required Course (LARRC). The LARRC is updated for each two-year licensing cycle to reflect the most current legislative and regulatory changes impacting the industry. This requirement is distinct from the one for all subsequent license renewals. For a second or later renewal, a broker or principal broker must also complete 30 hours of continuing education. However, the structure is more flexible. The only mandatory component is the 3-hour LARRC. The remaining 27 hours can be comprised of any combination of OREA-approved continuing education elective courses. This allows experienced licensees to select topics that align with their specific business focus or professional development goals. Therefore, advice from a veteran licensee regarding their own flexible elective choices would be incorrect and misleading for a broker approaching their initial renewal deadline.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider a scenario where Kael, an Oregon real estate broker, represents a buyer, Amina. Amina decides to make an offer on a commercial property owned by ‘Willamette Properties LLC’. Kael is aware that his spouse is a non-managing, 25% owner in Willamette Properties LLC. According to the Oregon Administrative Rules governing conflicts of interest, what is Kael’s most critical and immediate professional obligation in this situation?
Correct
The core issue is the licensee’s indirect financial interest in a transaction where they are representing a client. According to Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) 863-015-0200, a real estate licensee must not, directly or indirectly, buy, sell, lease, or exchange real property for themselves or for a business entity in which they have an interest, without first disclosing their status as a licensee and their interest in the transaction in writing to the other party. This rule extends to indirect interests, which would include a financial interest held by a spouse. The licensee’s primary fiduciary duty is to their client, and this duty includes loyalty and full disclosure. The existence of the spouse’s ownership in the selling entity creates a potential conflict of interest, as the licensee’s personal financial interests (tied to their spouse’s) could conflict with their duty to secure the best possible terms for their buyer client. The fundamental requirement to resolve this conflict is transparency. The licensee must promptly inform their client, in writing, of the nature and extent of this indirect interest. This disclosure allows the client to make an informed decision about whether they feel the licensee can continue to represent their interests impartially or if they wish to terminate the agency relationship. Failing to provide this specific, written disclosure is a serious violation of Oregon real estate law and the licensee’s fiduciary responsibilities. The obligation is to disclose to the client first and foremost.
Incorrect
The core issue is the licensee’s indirect financial interest in a transaction where they are representing a client. According to Oregon Administrative Rule (OAR) 863-015-0200, a real estate licensee must not, directly or indirectly, buy, sell, lease, or exchange real property for themselves or for a business entity in which they have an interest, without first disclosing their status as a licensee and their interest in the transaction in writing to the other party. This rule extends to indirect interests, which would include a financial interest held by a spouse. The licensee’s primary fiduciary duty is to their client, and this duty includes loyalty and full disclosure. The existence of the spouse’s ownership in the selling entity creates a potential conflict of interest, as the licensee’s personal financial interests (tied to their spouse’s) could conflict with their duty to secure the best possible terms for their buyer client. The fundamental requirement to resolve this conflict is transparency. The licensee must promptly inform their client, in writing, of the nature and extent of this indirect interest. This disclosure allows the client to make an informed decision about whether they feel the licensee can continue to represent their interests impartially or if they wish to terminate the agency relationship. Failing to provide this specific, written disclosure is a serious violation of Oregon real estate law and the licensee’s fiduciary responsibilities. The obligation is to disclose to the client first and foremost.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Kenji, an Oregon real estate licensee, is preparing a listing for a rural property. The seller insists the parcel is \(5\) acres based on their original purchase documents. However, Kenji’s review of the county assessor’s online records shows the lot size as \(4.75\) acres. A recent but unrecorded survey provided by a neighbor of an adjacent parcel appears to indicate the lot is \(4.9\) acres. To comply with his duties under Oregon law regarding advertising and representation, what is Kenji’s most appropriate course of action?
Correct
Under Oregon Administrative Rule 863-015-0135, all real estate advertising must be truthful and not deceptive or misleading. A property’s size, whether in square footage or acreage, is a material fact. When a licensee is presented with conflicting information regarding a material fact from multiple sources, such as the seller, public records, and a survey, they have a duty to disclose this conflict. Simply choosing one source over another, even an official one like the county assessor, can be problematic because the licensee is aware of other potentially valid information. Ignoring known facts could lead to a claim of misrepresentation. Creating a new figure by averaging the conflicting numbers is also a form of misrepresentation, as it presents a specific value that is not supported by any single document. The most prudent and legally defensible action is to present all known information transparently. By disclosing the figures from each source and explicitly stating that there is a discrepancy, the licensee fulfills their duty of honesty and full disclosure. Furthermore, advising potential buyers to perform their own due diligence, such as commissioning a new survey, effectively shifts the responsibility for verification to the buyer and minimizes the licensee’s and seller’s liability. This approach demonstrates the highest standard of professional care.
Incorrect
Under Oregon Administrative Rule 863-015-0135, all real estate advertising must be truthful and not deceptive or misleading. A property’s size, whether in square footage or acreage, is a material fact. When a licensee is presented with conflicting information regarding a material fact from multiple sources, such as the seller, public records, and a survey, they have a duty to disclose this conflict. Simply choosing one source over another, even an official one like the county assessor, can be problematic because the licensee is aware of other potentially valid information. Ignoring known facts could lead to a claim of misrepresentation. Creating a new figure by averaging the conflicting numbers is also a form of misrepresentation, as it presents a specific value that is not supported by any single document. The most prudent and legally defensible action is to present all known information transparently. By disclosing the figures from each source and explicitly stating that there is a discrepancy, the licensee fulfills their duty of honesty and full disclosure. Furthermore, advising potential buyers to perform their own due diligence, such as commissioning a new survey, effectively shifts the responsibility for verification to the buyer and minimizes the licensee’s and seller’s liability. This approach demonstrates the highest standard of professional care.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A real estate licensee, Mei, is reviewing a deed for a rural parcel in Yamhill County, Oregon. The metes and bounds description reads, in part: “…thence due East for 450 feet to a marked oak post; thence North along the center line of Silver Creek to the point of beginning…” A recent survey commissioned by the seller, Mr. Harrison, reveals that the marked oak post is actually 485 feet from the previous point, and the course of Silver Creek has meandered slightly over the decades. A prospective buyer questions the true location of the northern boundary. Based on established principles for interpreting legal descriptions in Oregon, which element would most likely have the highest priority in determining the boundary?
Correct
In Oregon, when interpreting a legal description of a property that contains conflicting elements, courts and surveyors follow a well-established hierarchy of evidence, often referred to as the order of priority of calls. This hierarchy is used to determine the original intent of the parties at the time the description was created. The highest priority is given to natural monuments, which are features like rivers, streams, large trees, or rock outcroppings. These are considered the most reliable and permanent landmarks. The next level of priority is given to artificial monuments, which are man-made objects such as iron pins, stakes, or fences placed by a surveyor. Following monuments, the next priority is given to courses and distances, which are the specific bearings and measurements described in the deed. The lowest priority is typically assigned to the stated quantity of land, or acreage. In the presented scenario, there is a conflict between a natural monument (the center line of Silver Creek), an artificial monument (the oak post), and a stated distance (450 feet). According to the legal order of priority, the natural monument, Silver Creek, is the controlling element. The boundary line is intended to follow the creek, regardless of whether the stated distance to the oak post is accurate or if the post itself is precisely located. The reference to the creek is considered the most certain and primary indicator of the boundary’s location.
Incorrect
In Oregon, when interpreting a legal description of a property that contains conflicting elements, courts and surveyors follow a well-established hierarchy of evidence, often referred to as the order of priority of calls. This hierarchy is used to determine the original intent of the parties at the time the description was created. The highest priority is given to natural monuments, which are features like rivers, streams, large trees, or rock outcroppings. These are considered the most reliable and permanent landmarks. The next level of priority is given to artificial monuments, which are man-made objects such as iron pins, stakes, or fences placed by a surveyor. Following monuments, the next priority is given to courses and distances, which are the specific bearings and measurements described in the deed. The lowest priority is typically assigned to the stated quantity of land, or acreage. In the presented scenario, there is a conflict between a natural monument (the center line of Silver Creek), an artificial monument (the oak post), and a stated distance (450 feet). According to the legal order of priority, the natural monument, Silver Creek, is the controlling element. The boundary line is intended to follow the creek, regardless of whether the stated distance to the oak post is accurate or if the post itself is precisely located. The reference to the creek is considered the most certain and primary indicator of the boundary’s location.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Amara has a month-to-month tenancy in a Portland apartment managed by a property manager, who is advising the owner, Mr. Chen. The rental agreement explicitly prohibits long-term guests without prior written consent. Mr. Chen has discovered that Amara has had an unauthorized person living in the unit for over a month, which is a material breach of the agreement. This is Amara’s first violation of any kind. To address this situation in compliance with the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, what is the correct procedural sequence the property manager must advise Mr. Chen to follow?
Correct
Step 1: Identify the legal issue. The tenant, Amara, has committed a material, but curable, violation of the rental agreement by having an unauthorized occupant. This is her first such violation. Step 2: Determine the applicable Oregon statute. Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 90.392 governs the termination of a tenancy for cause. Step 3: Analyze the specific requirements of ORS 90.392 for a first-time, curable material breach. The statute mandates a specific type of notice. Step 4: Detail the notice components. The landlord must deliver a written notice that: (a) specifies the acts and omissions constituting the breach; (b) states that the rental agreement will terminate upon a designated date not less than 30 days after delivery of the notice; and (c) states that the tenant can cure the breach within a period of not less than 14 days. Step 5: Synthesize the timeline. If the tenant cures the violation within the 14-day period, the tenancy does not terminate. If the tenant fails to cure, the tenancy terminates on the date specified in the notice, which must be at least 30 days from the notice delivery. Therefore, the correct procedure is to issue a 30-day termination notice that explicitly provides a 14-day period for the tenant to remedy the violation. Under Oregon’s Landlord-Tenant Act, addressing a tenant’s material violation of the rental agreement requires a specific procedural approach, especially for a first offense that is considered curable. The law aims to provide tenants with a reasonable opportunity to correct their behavior before facing eviction. For a violation like having an unauthorized occupant, the landlord cannot simply issue a short-term notice to vacate. Instead, the landlord is required by ORS 90.392 to provide a formal written notice. This notice must clearly identify the specific clause of the rental agreement that has been violated and describe the tenant’s actions that constitute the violation. Crucially, this notice must inform the tenant that the rental agreement will terminate on a date no sooner than 30 days from when the notice is received. It must also grant the tenant a cure period of at least 14 days to fix the problem. If the tenant resolves the issue within this 14-day window, the tenancy continues. If they fail to do so, the tenancy ends on the date specified in the 30-day notice, and the landlord can then proceed with an eviction action. This dual-timeline structure protects tenants from immediate eviction for correctable mistakes while preserving the landlord’s right to enforce the lease terms.
Incorrect
Step 1: Identify the legal issue. The tenant, Amara, has committed a material, but curable, violation of the rental agreement by having an unauthorized occupant. This is her first such violation. Step 2: Determine the applicable Oregon statute. Oregon Revised Statute (ORS) 90.392 governs the termination of a tenancy for cause. Step 3: Analyze the specific requirements of ORS 90.392 for a first-time, curable material breach. The statute mandates a specific type of notice. Step 4: Detail the notice components. The landlord must deliver a written notice that: (a) specifies the acts and omissions constituting the breach; (b) states that the rental agreement will terminate upon a designated date not less than 30 days after delivery of the notice; and (c) states that the tenant can cure the breach within a period of not less than 14 days. Step 5: Synthesize the timeline. If the tenant cures the violation within the 14-day period, the tenancy does not terminate. If the tenant fails to cure, the tenancy terminates on the date specified in the notice, which must be at least 30 days from the notice delivery. Therefore, the correct procedure is to issue a 30-day termination notice that explicitly provides a 14-day period for the tenant to remedy the violation. Under Oregon’s Landlord-Tenant Act, addressing a tenant’s material violation of the rental agreement requires a specific procedural approach, especially for a first offense that is considered curable. The law aims to provide tenants with a reasonable opportunity to correct their behavior before facing eviction. For a violation like having an unauthorized occupant, the landlord cannot simply issue a short-term notice to vacate. Instead, the landlord is required by ORS 90.392 to provide a formal written notice. This notice must clearly identify the specific clause of the rental agreement that has been violated and describe the tenant’s actions that constitute the violation. Crucially, this notice must inform the tenant that the rental agreement will terminate on a date no sooner than 30 days from when the notice is received. It must also grant the tenant a cure period of at least 14 days to fix the problem. If the tenant resolves the issue within this 14-day window, the tenancy continues. If they fail to do so, the tenancy ends on the date specified in the 30-day notice, and the landlord can then proceed with an eviction action. This dual-timeline structure protects tenants from immediate eviction for correctable mistakes while preserving the landlord’s right to enforce the lease terms.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Assessment of a brokerage’s data security protocols reveals a significant oversight. Kenji, a principal broker in Eugene, discovers that Anya, a licensee who transferred her license to another firm eight months prior, was never removed from the brokerage’s cloud-based transaction management system. The system archives all transaction files, which include client names, social security numbers, and copies of earnest money checks showing bank account numbers. An access log audit is inconclusive about whether Anya accessed any files post-departure. According to the Oregon Consumer Information Protection Act (OCIPA), what is Kenji’s most immediate and critical legal obligation upon this discovery?
Correct
The core legal principle is derived from the Oregon Consumer Information Protection Act (OCIPA), specifically ORS 646A.604. A breach of security is defined as the unauthorized acquisition of computerized data that materially compromises the security, confidentiality, or integrity of personal information. The discovery that an unauthorized person, such as a former employee, has had access credentials to a system containing personal information constitutes a breach. This discovery immediately triggers the legal duty to conduct a prompt and reasonable investigation to determine the nature and scope of the breach. The goal of this investigation is to ascertain the likelihood that personal information has been or will be misused. The outcome of this investigation determines the next steps, including whether notification to affected consumers and the Oregon Attorney General is required. Under Oregon law, a business that owns or licenses personal information must protect it with reasonable security measures. When a breach is discovered, the business cannot simply fix the vulnerability and assume no harm was done. The law mandates a proactive response. The investigation must be timely and thorough. If the investigation concludes that there is a risk of harm to consumers, notification must be made without unreasonable delay, and not later than 45 days after the breach was discovered. If more than 250 consumers require notification, the Attorney General must also be notified. The critical first step, however, is not immediate notification to all parties, but the investigation itself. This process allows the business to understand the extent of the data compromise, which consumers were affected, and what information was involved, ensuring that any subsequent notification is accurate and effective. Failing to investigate upon discovery of a vulnerability like unrevoked access credentials is a violation of the duties imposed by OCIPA.
Incorrect
The core legal principle is derived from the Oregon Consumer Information Protection Act (OCIPA), specifically ORS 646A.604. A breach of security is defined as the unauthorized acquisition of computerized data that materially compromises the security, confidentiality, or integrity of personal information. The discovery that an unauthorized person, such as a former employee, has had access credentials to a system containing personal information constitutes a breach. This discovery immediately triggers the legal duty to conduct a prompt and reasonable investigation to determine the nature and scope of the breach. The goal of this investigation is to ascertain the likelihood that personal information has been or will be misused. The outcome of this investigation determines the next steps, including whether notification to affected consumers and the Oregon Attorney General is required. Under Oregon law, a business that owns or licenses personal information must protect it with reasonable security measures. When a breach is discovered, the business cannot simply fix the vulnerability and assume no harm was done. The law mandates a proactive response. The investigation must be timely and thorough. If the investigation concludes that there is a risk of harm to consumers, notification must be made without unreasonable delay, and not later than 45 days after the breach was discovered. If more than 250 consumers require notification, the Attorney General must also be notified. The critical first step, however, is not immediate notification to all parties, but the investigation itself. This process allows the business to understand the extent of the data compromise, which consumers were affected, and what information was involved, ensuring that any subsequent notification is accurate and effective. Failing to investigate upon discovery of a vulnerability like unrevoked access credentials is a violation of the duties imposed by OCIPA.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
An appraisal of two adjacent ten-acre parcels within Oregon’s Eola-Amity Hills AVA reveals a substantial difference in market value, even though they share identical road frontage, zoning regulations, and access to utilities. A detailed geological survey commissioned by a potential buyer, Kai, shows that one parcel contains a deep layer of volcanic Nekia soil, highly prized for cultivating specific grape varietals, while the neighboring parcel is predominantly composed of less-desirable sedimentary soil. This significant variation in value is most directly attributable to which physical characteristic of land?
Correct
Land possesses three core physical characteristics that are inherent and unchangeable: immobility, indestructibility, and uniqueness. Immobility refers to the fact that a parcel of land has a fixed geographical location and cannot be moved. This fixed nature is a primary driver of real estate value, as location is a critical factor. Indestructibility, also known as durability, means that land is permanent and cannot be destroyed. While improvements on the land can be razed and the topography can be altered, the fundamental parcel of land remains. Its economic value may change, but the land itself endures. The third characteristic, uniqueness or non-homogeneity, posits that no two parcels of land are ever identical. Each parcel occupies a unique location on the earth’s surface. Furthermore, parcels can differ in countless other ways, such as soil composition, topography, mineral rights, and orientation. In the described situation, while the parcels are adjacent and thus both immobile, and both are fundamentally indestructible, the significant difference in their market value stems directly from their distinct and non-replicable soil compositions. One parcel possesses a specific attribute, the Jory soil, that the other lacks, making it unique and more valuable for a specific economic purpose like viticulture. This principle of non-homogeneity is fundamental to property appraisal and market analysis, as it necessitates evaluating each property on its individual merits rather than as a standardized commodity.
Incorrect
Land possesses three core physical characteristics that are inherent and unchangeable: immobility, indestructibility, and uniqueness. Immobility refers to the fact that a parcel of land has a fixed geographical location and cannot be moved. This fixed nature is a primary driver of real estate value, as location is a critical factor. Indestructibility, also known as durability, means that land is permanent and cannot be destroyed. While improvements on the land can be razed and the topography can be altered, the fundamental parcel of land remains. Its economic value may change, but the land itself endures. The third characteristic, uniqueness or non-homogeneity, posits that no two parcels of land are ever identical. Each parcel occupies a unique location on the earth’s surface. Furthermore, parcels can differ in countless other ways, such as soil composition, topography, mineral rights, and orientation. In the described situation, while the parcels are adjacent and thus both immobile, and both are fundamentally indestructible, the significant difference in their market value stems directly from their distinct and non-replicable soil compositions. One parcel possesses a specific attribute, the Jory soil, that the other lacks, making it unique and more valuable for a specific economic purpose like viticulture. This principle of non-homogeneity is fundamental to property appraisal and market analysis, as it necessitates evaluating each property on its individual merits rather than as a standardized commodity.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider a scenario where the philanthropic DeKum family conveys a parcel of land in Oregon to the Willamette Flora Preservation Society, a nonprofit. The deed specifies the conveyance is “to the Willamette Flora Preservation Society and its successors, but if the land is ever used for purposes other than a public native plant sanctuary, the DeKum family and their heirs shall have the right to re-enter and repossess the property.” Years later, facing financial strain, the society leases a small corner of the property to a commercial coffee stand. Upon the commencement of the coffee stand’s business, but before the DeKum family has taken any legal action, what is the status of the society’s estate?
Correct
The deed in this scenario creates a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent. This type of defeasible freehold estate grants ownership to the grantee, but that ownership is subject to a specific condition. If the condition is violated, the grantor has the right to terminate the estate, but the termination is not automatic. The key language identifying this estate is “but if” and “shall have the right to re-enter.” This phrasing establishes a future interest for the grantor known as a right of entry or power of termination. Unlike a fee simple determinable, which would use language like “so long as” and would terminate automatically upon the breach of the condition, a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent requires the grantor to take affirmative action. Upon the breach—in this case, the operation of the commercial coffee kiosk—the grantee’s estate does not immediately end. The grantee continues to hold the fee simple title. However, the breach of the condition “ripens” the grantor’s right of entry. The DeKum family must now take steps, such as filing a lawsuit to quiet title, to actually divest the nonprofit of its ownership and reclaim the property. Until they successfully exercise this power of termination, the Willamette Flora Preservation Society remains the owner of the property in fee simple.
Incorrect
The deed in this scenario creates a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent. This type of defeasible freehold estate grants ownership to the grantee, but that ownership is subject to a specific condition. If the condition is violated, the grantor has the right to terminate the estate, but the termination is not automatic. The key language identifying this estate is “but if” and “shall have the right to re-enter.” This phrasing establishes a future interest for the grantor known as a right of entry or power of termination. Unlike a fee simple determinable, which would use language like “so long as” and would terminate automatically upon the breach of the condition, a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent requires the grantor to take affirmative action. Upon the breach—in this case, the operation of the commercial coffee kiosk—the grantee’s estate does not immediately end. The grantee continues to hold the fee simple title. However, the breach of the condition “ripens” the grantor’s right of entry. The DeKum family must now take steps, such as filing a lawsuit to quiet title, to actually divest the nonprofit of its ownership and reclaim the property. Until they successfully exercise this power of termination, the Willamette Flora Preservation Society remains the owner of the property in fee simple.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
An Oregon real estate broker, Kenji, represents a seller, Anika. While the property is under contract pending inspections, Kenji learns from a personal acquaintance who works with the buyer that the buyer just received a substantial promotion and has told colleagues they could have afforded to offer a significantly higher price for the property. According to the fiduciary duties prescribed by the Oregon Real Estate Agency, what is Kenji’s primary obligation in this situation?
Correct
Under Oregon law, a real estate licensee owes specific fiduciary duties to their principal. The primary duties at play in this scenario are loyalty and disclosure. The duty of loyalty, as outlined in Oregon Revised Statutes, requires the agent to act solely in the best interests of their client at all times, which includes securing the most favorable terms and price. The duty of disclosure mandates that the agent must inform their principal of all material facts known to the agent. A material fact is any information that could reasonably be expected to influence the principal’s decisions in the transaction. In this situation, the information about the buyer’s recent promotion and significantly increased financial capacity is unequivocally a material fact for the seller. It directly impacts the seller’s negotiating strategy and their assessment of the buyer’s offer. The agent’s obligation is to immediately convey this information to their client. The source of the information, being a personal contact, does not negate this duty. The duty of confidentiality is owed to the agent’s own principal, not to the adverse party or information learned about the adverse party from external sources. Withholding this information would be a direct breach of the duties of loyalty and disclosure, as it would deprive the seller of a critical advantage in negotiations.
Incorrect
Under Oregon law, a real estate licensee owes specific fiduciary duties to their principal. The primary duties at play in this scenario are loyalty and disclosure. The duty of loyalty, as outlined in Oregon Revised Statutes, requires the agent to act solely in the best interests of their client at all times, which includes securing the most favorable terms and price. The duty of disclosure mandates that the agent must inform their principal of all material facts known to the agent. A material fact is any information that could reasonably be expected to influence the principal’s decisions in the transaction. In this situation, the information about the buyer’s recent promotion and significantly increased financial capacity is unequivocally a material fact for the seller. It directly impacts the seller’s negotiating strategy and their assessment of the buyer’s offer. The agent’s obligation is to immediately convey this information to their client. The source of the information, being a personal contact, does not negate this duty. The duty of confidentiality is owed to the agent’s own principal, not to the adverse party or information learned about the adverse party from external sources. Withholding this information would be a direct breach of the duties of loyalty and disclosure, as it would deprive the seller of a critical advantage in negotiations.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider a scenario where Leo and Maya, a married couple, purchase a residential property in Eugene, Oregon, with the deed explicitly stating they hold title as “tenants by the entirety.” Several years later, a creditor obtains a significant court judgment against Leo for a business debt he incurred individually before the marriage. The creditor then attempts to force the sale of the couple’s home to satisfy the judgment. Under Oregon law, what is the most likely outcome of the creditor’s action?
Correct
In Oregon, tenancy by the entirety is a special form of real property ownership available exclusively to married couples and registered domestic partners. This form of title is characterized by the right of survivorship, meaning that upon the death of one spouse, the surviving spouse automatically acquires full ownership of the property by operation of law, bypassing the need for probate. A key feature that distinguishes tenancy by the entirety from other forms of co-ownership is the significant protection it offers against creditors. The property is considered to be owned by the marital unit as a single legal entity, not as two separate individuals holding divisible shares. Consequently, a creditor who holds a debt against only one spouse cannot attach a lien to the property or force its sale to satisfy that individual’s debt. The entire property is shielded from the separate, non-joint debts of either spouse. For a creditor to successfully force a sale of the property, the debt must be a joint obligation of both spouses. If a judgment is obtained against only one spouse, the creditor’s lien may attach to that spouse’s potential interest, but it remains unenforceable as long as the tenancy by the entirety exists. The lien could only be executed if the non-debtor spouse dies first or if the couple divorces, which would sever the tenancy and typically convert it into a tenancy in common.
Incorrect
In Oregon, tenancy by the entirety is a special form of real property ownership available exclusively to married couples and registered domestic partners. This form of title is characterized by the right of survivorship, meaning that upon the death of one spouse, the surviving spouse automatically acquires full ownership of the property by operation of law, bypassing the need for probate. A key feature that distinguishes tenancy by the entirety from other forms of co-ownership is the significant protection it offers against creditors. The property is considered to be owned by the marital unit as a single legal entity, not as two separate individuals holding divisible shares. Consequently, a creditor who holds a debt against only one spouse cannot attach a lien to the property or force its sale to satisfy that individual’s debt. The entire property is shielded from the separate, non-joint debts of either spouse. For a creditor to successfully force a sale of the property, the debt must be a joint obligation of both spouses. If a judgment is obtained against only one spouse, the creditor’s lien may attach to that spouse’s potential interest, but it remains unenforceable as long as the tenancy by the entirety exists. The lien could only be executed if the non-debtor spouse dies first or if the couple divorces, which would sever the tenancy and typically convert it into a tenancy in common.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Assessment of the following sequence of events is required to determine the contractual obligations of the parties involved in a property transaction in Eugene, Oregon. Kenji submitted a written offer to purchase Leilani’s duplex for $625,000, with the offer stipulating that it would expire at 6:00 PM on Tuesday. On Tuesday at 1:00 PM, Leilani signed the acceptance clause on the sale agreement form. However, at 2:00 PM, she had a change of heart and instructed her broker to instead communicate a counteroffer for $635,000. At 2:30 PM, Leilani’s broker sent an email to Kenji’s broker containing the scanned, signed acceptance of the original $625,000 offer. At 2:35 PM, Leilani’s broker called Kenji’s broker and left a detailed voicemail communicating the new counteroffer for $635,000. Kenji’s broker, upon returning to his office, first listened to the 2:35 PM voicemail at 3:00 PM. He then opened and read the 2:30 PM email with the signed acceptance at 3:05 PM. Based on this timeline and standard Oregon contract principles, what is the legal status of the agreement at 3:10 PM on Tuesday?
Correct
The final legal status is that a counteroffer for $635,000 is in effect, and Kenji’s original offer was rejected. This is determined by the following legal analysis. For a real estate contract to be formed in Oregon, there must be an offer, acceptance, consideration, legal capacity, and a legal purpose. The critical issue here is the interplay between the communication of acceptance and the communication of a counteroffer. A seller’s signature on an acceptance document is not sufficient on its own to form a contract; the acceptance must be communicated to the buyer or the buyer’s agent. A counteroffer serves as a rejection of the original offer and simultaneously creates a new offer from the seller to the buyer. The key principle governing this scenario is the timing of receipt. While different rules can apply, a rejection or a counteroffer is effective when it is received by the offeror or their agent. In this case, both the email containing the acceptance and the voicemail containing the counteroffer were sent by the seller’s agent. The determining factor is the order in which the buyer’s agent received these communications. According to the timeline, the buyer’s agent first listened to the voicemail containing the counteroffer at 3:00 PM. At that moment, the counteroffer was officially received. This communication legally terminated the buyer’s original offer. Five minutes later, at 3:05 PM, the agent read the email containing the signed acceptance. However, by this time, the original offer that the acceptance pertained to no longer existed, as it had been extinguished by the previously received counteroffer. Therefore, the attempted acceptance was ineffective. The only valid, pending offer is the seller’s counteroffer.
Incorrect
The final legal status is that a counteroffer for $635,000 is in effect, and Kenji’s original offer was rejected. This is determined by the following legal analysis. For a real estate contract to be formed in Oregon, there must be an offer, acceptance, consideration, legal capacity, and a legal purpose. The critical issue here is the interplay between the communication of acceptance and the communication of a counteroffer. A seller’s signature on an acceptance document is not sufficient on its own to form a contract; the acceptance must be communicated to the buyer or the buyer’s agent. A counteroffer serves as a rejection of the original offer and simultaneously creates a new offer from the seller to the buyer. The key principle governing this scenario is the timing of receipt. While different rules can apply, a rejection or a counteroffer is effective when it is received by the offeror or their agent. In this case, both the email containing the acceptance and the voicemail containing the counteroffer were sent by the seller’s agent. The determining factor is the order in which the buyer’s agent received these communications. According to the timeline, the buyer’s agent first listened to the voicemail containing the counteroffer at 3:00 PM. At that moment, the counteroffer was officially received. This communication legally terminated the buyer’s original offer. Five minutes later, at 3:05 PM, the agent read the email containing the signed acceptance. However, by this time, the original offer that the acceptance pertained to no longer existed, as it had been extinguished by the previously received counteroffer. Therefore, the attempted acceptance was ineffective. The only valid, pending offer is the seller’s counteroffer.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider a scenario where Anika, a homeowner in Portland, lists her property for sale with a principal broker, Mateo. Anika is aware of a persistent water intrusion issue in the basement that she has concealed with new drywall and paint. She affirmatively tells Mateo that the basement has always been dry and signs the Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement to that effect. Mateo, relying on Anika’s statements and seeing no visible evidence of the problem, markets the property accordingly. A buyer purchases the home and, after the first heavy rain, discovers the significant water damage, leading to a lawsuit against Mateo’s brokerage for misrepresentation. In this situation, which specific duty did Anika most directly breach in her agency relationship with Mateo?
Correct
This is a conceptual question and does not require a mathematical calculation. In an agency relationship under Oregon law, the principal (the client) owes specific duties to their agent (the real estate licensee). While agents have extensive fiduciary duties to their principals, the relationship imposes reciprocal obligations. The primary duties of a principal to an agent are compensation, cooperation, and indemnification. The duty of compensation involves paying the agreed-upon commission upon successful completion of the agent’s task. The duty of cooperation requires the principal to act in good faith and not hinder the agent’s ability to perform their duties. This includes being truthful and providing the agent with accurate information necessary for the transaction. The duty of indemnification obligates the principal to protect the agent from any loss or damage suffered by the agent as a result of acting on the principal’s instructions or due to the principal’s own misconduct. In a situation where a principal knowingly provides false information about a property’s condition, and the agent relies on this information, the principal has breached the duty of cooperation. If the agent subsequently faces legal action or financial loss because of this misrepresentation, the principal’s duty to indemnify is triggered. The principal is responsible for the consequences of their own misstatements, and they must cover the agent’s losses that directly result from those misstatements. The agent is entitled to rely on the principal’s representations, especially concerning latent defects not discoverable through a reasonably competent and diligent visual inspection.
Incorrect
This is a conceptual question and does not require a mathematical calculation. In an agency relationship under Oregon law, the principal (the client) owes specific duties to their agent (the real estate licensee). While agents have extensive fiduciary duties to their principals, the relationship imposes reciprocal obligations. The primary duties of a principal to an agent are compensation, cooperation, and indemnification. The duty of compensation involves paying the agreed-upon commission upon successful completion of the agent’s task. The duty of cooperation requires the principal to act in good faith and not hinder the agent’s ability to perform their duties. This includes being truthful and providing the agent with accurate information necessary for the transaction. The duty of indemnification obligates the principal to protect the agent from any loss or damage suffered by the agent as a result of acting on the principal’s instructions or due to the principal’s own misconduct. In a situation where a principal knowingly provides false information about a property’s condition, and the agent relies on this information, the principal has breached the duty of cooperation. If the agent subsequently faces legal action or financial loss because of this misrepresentation, the principal’s duty to indemnify is triggered. The principal is responsible for the consequences of their own misstatements, and they must cover the agent’s losses that directly result from those misstatements. The agent is entitled to rely on the principal’s representations, especially concerning latent defects not discoverable through a reasonably competent and diligent visual inspection.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
The following case demonstrates a series of actions by a real estate broker. An assessment of these actions against Oregon Administrative Rules is required. Alistair, an Oregon real estate broker, is representing his client Mei-Ling in the sale of her home. As Mei-Ling is traveling internationally, she gives Alistair verbal permission during a video call to place a lockbox on the property to facilitate showings. Alistair immediately installs a combination lockbox and, for the convenience of showing agents, sets the code to the last four digits of the property’s MLS number. He intends to have Mei-Ling sign the formal written authorization upon her return. He also forgets to log the lockbox placement and its combination in his principal broker’s central record-keeping system. Which of Alistair’s actions constitutes the most significant violation of the specific Oregon Administrative Rules governing the security features of the lockbox itself?
Correct
The core issue revolves around the specific regulations governing the use of key lockboxes by real estate licensees in Oregon, as outlined in the Oregon Administrative Rules. The broker, Alistair, committed several violations. He placed the lockbox without written authorization, which is a procedural violation of OAR 863-015-0135(1). He also failed to log the device in his principal broker’s system, an administrative breach of OAR 863-015-0135(5). However, the most direct and significant violation of the specific security protocols for the device itself is the choice of combination. OAR 863-015-0135(4) explicitly states that a licensee may not set a lockbox combination to a number that is the listing number, the property address, or a series of numbers that is easily determinable. Using the last four digits of the MLS number falls directly into this prohibited category. This rule exists to prevent unauthorized individuals from easily guessing the code and gaining access to the property, thereby compromising its security. While failing to get written permission is a serious violation of the rules for placing the device, using a forbidden code is a violation of the rules for securing the device itself, representing a more immediate and tangible security threat that the specific rule was designed to prevent. The unlocked door is a separate issue of failing to exercise reasonable care, not a violation of the lockbox rule itself.
Incorrect
The core issue revolves around the specific regulations governing the use of key lockboxes by real estate licensees in Oregon, as outlined in the Oregon Administrative Rules. The broker, Alistair, committed several violations. He placed the lockbox without written authorization, which is a procedural violation of OAR 863-015-0135(1). He also failed to log the device in his principal broker’s system, an administrative breach of OAR 863-015-0135(5). However, the most direct and significant violation of the specific security protocols for the device itself is the choice of combination. OAR 863-015-0135(4) explicitly states that a licensee may not set a lockbox combination to a number that is the listing number, the property address, or a series of numbers that is easily determinable. Using the last four digits of the MLS number falls directly into this prohibited category. This rule exists to prevent unauthorized individuals from easily guessing the code and gaining access to the property, thereby compromising its security. While failing to get written permission is a serious violation of the rules for placing the device, using a forbidden code is a violation of the rules for securing the device itself, representing a more immediate and tangible security threat that the specific rule was designed to prevent. The unlocked door is a separate issue of failing to exercise reasonable care, not a violation of the lockbox rule itself.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Alistair, the principal broker of a real estate firm in Eugene, Oregon, also holds a 25% ownership stake in a title company and a 40% stake in a mortgage brokerage. To create a streamlined client experience, he proposes a new “Premier Partner” program. Under this program, if a client chooses to use both of Alistair’s affiliated companies for their transaction, the real estate agent handling the deal will receive a 5% higher commission split from the brokerage for that specific sale. Clients are provided with a proper Affiliated Business Arrangement disclosure. An assessment of this “Premier Partner” program under RESPA guidelines reveals which of the following conclusions?
Correct
The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, or RESPA, specifically under Section 8, prohibits giving or accepting any fee, kickback, or thing of value in exchange for the referral of settlement service business involving a federally related mortgage loan. In the described scenario, the core issue is the compensation structure for the real estate agents. The proposed plan offers agents a higher commission split for each transaction where the client uses the brokerage’s affiliated title and mortgage companies. This higher split is a “thing of value” given to the agent directly in exchange for successfully referring the client to those specific settlement service providers. This constitutes a direct violation of RESPA’s anti-kickback provisions. While RESPA does permit Affiliated Business Arrangements (AfBAs), they must adhere to strict guidelines. These guidelines require a written disclosure to the consumer at or before the time of referral, a statement that the consumer is not required to use the affiliated service, and a limitation on the benefit received by the referring party. The only thing of value that the referring party can receive from an AfBA is a return on their ownership interest or franchise relationship. A transactional bonus, such as an increased commission split for a specific referral, is not a return on ownership interest and is therefore prohibited. The existence of an AfBA and the provision of a disclosure form do not legitimize an otherwise illegal referral fee arrangement. The credit offered to the consumer, while potentially permissible as a price reduction, does not cure the illegality of the payment made to the agent for the referral.
Incorrect
The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, or RESPA, specifically under Section 8, prohibits giving or accepting any fee, kickback, or thing of value in exchange for the referral of settlement service business involving a federally related mortgage loan. In the described scenario, the core issue is the compensation structure for the real estate agents. The proposed plan offers agents a higher commission split for each transaction where the client uses the brokerage’s affiliated title and mortgage companies. This higher split is a “thing of value” given to the agent directly in exchange for successfully referring the client to those specific settlement service providers. This constitutes a direct violation of RESPA’s anti-kickback provisions. While RESPA does permit Affiliated Business Arrangements (AfBAs), they must adhere to strict guidelines. These guidelines require a written disclosure to the consumer at or before the time of referral, a statement that the consumer is not required to use the affiliated service, and a limitation on the benefit received by the referring party. The only thing of value that the referring party can receive from an AfBA is a return on their ownership interest or franchise relationship. A transactional bonus, such as an increased commission split for a specific referral, is not a return on ownership interest and is therefore prohibited. The existence of an AfBA and the provision of a disclosure form do not legitimize an otherwise illegal referral fee arrangement. The credit offered to the consumer, while potentially permissible as a price reduction, does not cure the illegality of the payment made to the agent for the referral.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Amara recently vacated her apartment in Portland, Oregon, at the end of her month-to-month tenancy. The property manager, Kenji, conducted the final walkthrough and discovered that Amara had left behind a vintage road bicycle, a box of old magazines, and a small, locked safe. Kenji, an experienced cyclist, estimates the bicycle’s fair market value is approximately \( \$800 \). He considers the magazines to be trash. He has no way of knowing the value of the contents within the locked safe. To proceed in a manner that is fully compliant with the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, what is Kenji’s most appropriate next step?
Correct
The correct course of action is determined by applying the specific procedures outlined in the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, specifically ORS 90.425, regarding the disposition of abandoned personal property. First, the location of the property is Portland, which is in Multnomah County. Under Oregon law, the procedure for handling abandoned property depends on its estimated fair market value, and the value threshold differs based on county population. For a high-population county like Multnomah, the threshold is \( \$1,000 \). Second, the landlord, Kenji, must make a good faith estimate of the total value of all property left behind. The bicycle is valued at \( \$800 \), and the magazines have negligible value. However, a locked safe has an unknown, but potentially significant, value. A landlord cannot ignore an item simply because its value is not immediately apparent. Third, given the uncertainty posed by the locked safe, a reasonably prudent landlord would conclude that the total value of the abandoned property could easily exceed the \( \$1,000 \) threshold. Acting on the assumption that the value is below the threshold would expose the landlord to significant liability if the safe’s contents are valuable. Therefore, to comply with the law and mitigate risk, Kenji must follow the procedures for property valued over the statutory limit. This requires sending a detailed written notice to Amara’s last known address. This notice must inform her that she has 15 days from the date the notice is given to contact the landlord and arrange to retrieve all her belongings, including the safe. The landlord must securely store the property during this period. This approach ensures compliance regardless of the safe’s actual contents.
Incorrect
The correct course of action is determined by applying the specific procedures outlined in the Oregon Residential Landlord and Tenant Act, specifically ORS 90.425, regarding the disposition of abandoned personal property. First, the location of the property is Portland, which is in Multnomah County. Under Oregon law, the procedure for handling abandoned property depends on its estimated fair market value, and the value threshold differs based on county population. For a high-population county like Multnomah, the threshold is \( \$1,000 \). Second, the landlord, Kenji, must make a good faith estimate of the total value of all property left behind. The bicycle is valued at \( \$800 \), and the magazines have negligible value. However, a locked safe has an unknown, but potentially significant, value. A landlord cannot ignore an item simply because its value is not immediately apparent. Third, given the uncertainty posed by the locked safe, a reasonably prudent landlord would conclude that the total value of the abandoned property could easily exceed the \( \$1,000 \) threshold. Acting on the assumption that the value is below the threshold would expose the landlord to significant liability if the safe’s contents are valuable. Therefore, to comply with the law and mitigate risk, Kenji must follow the procedures for property valued over the statutory limit. This requires sending a detailed written notice to Amara’s last known address. This notice must inform her that she has 15 days from the date the notice is given to contact the landlord and arrange to retrieve all her belongings, including the safe. The landlord must securely store the property during this period. This approach ensures compliance regardless of the safe’s actual contents.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Assessment of a proposal submitted by a developer, Kenji, reveals his plan to construct a large-scale commercial retreat on a parcel of land he owns in rural Yamhill County, Oregon. The property is situated well outside the local Urban Growth Boundary (UGB) and is zoned for Exclusive Farm Use (EFU). To receive county approval, Kenji must first successfully obtain an exception to Oregon’s Statewide Planning Goal 3. From a legal and procedural standpoint, which of the following represents the most critical and foundational argument Kenji must successfully make to the county?
Correct
The foundation of Oregon’s land use law, established by Senate Bill 100, is the preservation of agricultural and forest lands, which is primarily enforced through Statewide Planning Goals administered by the Land Conservation and Development Commission (LCDC). Goal 3 (Agricultural Lands) and Goal 14 (Urbanization) work in tandem to direct development into areas within Urban Growth Boundaries (UGBs) and protect rural resource lands. For a property zoned for Exclusive Farm Use (EFU) that is located outside a UGB, converting it to a non-farm use like a commercial resort is exceptionally difficult. It requires a formal exception to the statewide goals. The specific process is outlined in Goal 2 (Land Use Planning), Part II, which describes the criteria for an exception. The most common type of exception sought in this scenario is a “reasons” exception. This requires the applicant to provide compelling reasons why the state policy embodied in the applicable goal should not apply to their specific property. The burden of proof is entirely on the applicant. A critical and mandatory component of this justification is to demonstrate that the proposed use is needed and, crucially, that there are no other reasonable alternative locations for the use, particularly on land that is not protected resource land. This means the applicant must conduct and present a thorough inventory and analysis of lands within the relevant UGB to prove that no suitable sites exist to accommodate the proposed development. Simply arguing for economic benefits, aesthetic design, or local support is insufficient to overcome the strong public policy of preserving farmland. The core legal test hinges on the necessity of using that specific parcel of resource land, which can only be established by proving the absence of viable alternatives.
Incorrect
The foundation of Oregon’s land use law, established by Senate Bill 100, is the preservation of agricultural and forest lands, which is primarily enforced through Statewide Planning Goals administered by the Land Conservation and Development Commission (LCDC). Goal 3 (Agricultural Lands) and Goal 14 (Urbanization) work in tandem to direct development into areas within Urban Growth Boundaries (UGBs) and protect rural resource lands. For a property zoned for Exclusive Farm Use (EFU) that is located outside a UGB, converting it to a non-farm use like a commercial resort is exceptionally difficult. It requires a formal exception to the statewide goals. The specific process is outlined in Goal 2 (Land Use Planning), Part II, which describes the criteria for an exception. The most common type of exception sought in this scenario is a “reasons” exception. This requires the applicant to provide compelling reasons why the state policy embodied in the applicable goal should not apply to their specific property. The burden of proof is entirely on the applicant. A critical and mandatory component of this justification is to demonstrate that the proposed use is needed and, crucially, that there are no other reasonable alternative locations for the use, particularly on land that is not protected resource land. This means the applicant must conduct and present a thorough inventory and analysis of lands within the relevant UGB to prove that no suitable sites exist to accommodate the proposed development. Simply arguing for economic benefits, aesthetic design, or local support is insufficient to overcome the strong public policy of preserving farmland. The core legal test hinges on the necessity of using that specific parcel of resource land, which can only be established by proving the absence of viable alternatives.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
An assessment of a seller’s disclosure obligations reveals a complex situation for a homeowner, Mr. Alistair Finch. He is selling his vintage home in Eugene. Seven years ago, he discovered a significant seasonal water intrusion issue along the northern foundation wall of his basement. He hired a reputable waterproofing company that installed an interior drainage system and a sump pump, and the issue has not recurred since. While completing the Oregon Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement, he comes to the question asking about awareness of “past or present water penetration or moisture problems.” Believing the problem is permanently resolved, he feels he should not have to disclose an old, repaired issue. What is the most legally sound advice his real estate broker should provide regarding this disclosure?
Correct
This question does not require any mathematical calculation. Under Oregon law, specifically ORS 105.464, a seller of residential real property must provide the buyer with a complete and accurate Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement. The core principle of this law is to compel the seller to disclose their actual knowledge of the property’s condition. The questions on the form are designed to elicit information about both past and present issues. A “material fact” is any information that a reasonable person would find important in deciding to purchase the property or in determining the price they are willing to pay. A significant past defect, such as water penetration in a basement, is almost always considered a material fact, even if it has been professionally repaired. The fact of the repair itself is also material. By disclosing the past problem and the corrective action taken, the seller is providing a full and honest history of the property. This transparency allows the buyer to make an informed decision and conduct their own due diligence, such as reviewing repair documentation or having the area specifically inspected. Failing to disclose a known past defect, even if repaired, constitutes a misrepresentation. This could give the buyer the right to revoke their offer before closing or to sue for damages after closing if the problem recurs or if they discover the omission. A real estate licensee has a duty to advise their client to make full, truthful disclosures to comply with the law and avoid future liability.
Incorrect
This question does not require any mathematical calculation. Under Oregon law, specifically ORS 105.464, a seller of residential real property must provide the buyer with a complete and accurate Seller’s Property Disclosure Statement. The core principle of this law is to compel the seller to disclose their actual knowledge of the property’s condition. The questions on the form are designed to elicit information about both past and present issues. A “material fact” is any information that a reasonable person would find important in deciding to purchase the property or in determining the price they are willing to pay. A significant past defect, such as water penetration in a basement, is almost always considered a material fact, even if it has been professionally repaired. The fact of the repair itself is also material. By disclosing the past problem and the corrective action taken, the seller is providing a full and honest history of the property. This transparency allows the buyer to make an informed decision and conduct their own due diligence, such as reviewing repair documentation or having the area specifically inspected. Failing to disclose a known past defect, even if repaired, constitutes a misrepresentation. This could give the buyer the right to revoke their offer before closing or to sue for damages after closing if the problem recurs or if they discover the omission. A real estate licensee has a duty to advise their client to make full, truthful disclosures to comply with the law and avoid future liability.